NFAT Entrance Exam Mock Test for M.Sc. Forensic Science 2025
Physics (25 Questions)
1. A particle moves in a circular path with constant speed. The acceleration of the particle is:
2. The electric field inside a uniformly charged spherical conductor is:
3. A wave has a frequency of 500 Hz and a wavelength of 0.68 m. The speed of the wave is:
4. The critical angle for a medium with a refractive index of 1.6 relative to air is approximately:
5. A capacitor of 10 µF is charged to 100 V. The energy stored in the capacitor is:
6. The moment of inertia of a thin rod of mass M and length L about an axis perpendicular to the rod through its center is:
7. A radioactive isotope decays to 12.5% of its original activity in 24 days. The half-life of the isotope is:
8. The de Broglie wavelength of an electron accelerated through a potential difference of 100 V is approximately:
9. The torque on a dipole in a uniform electric field is maximum when the angle between the dipole moment and the field is:
10. The coefficient of viscosity of a liquid is 0.002 Pa·s. If a force of 0.01 N is applied over an area of 0.1 m², the velocity gradient is:
11. The fringe width in a Young’s double-slit experiment is 0.2 mm when the wavelength is 600 nm. If the wavelength is changed to 400 nm, the new fringe width is:
12. A body of mass 2 kg is projected vertically upwards with a velocity of 10 m/s. The maximum height reached is (g = 10 m/s²):
13. The magnetic field at the center of a circular loop carrying a current of 2 A and radius 0.1 m is:
14. The efficiency of a Carnot engine operating between 400 K and 300 K is:
15. The time period of a simple pendulum on the moon (g_moon = g/6) compared to Earth is:
16. A convex lens of focal length 20 cm forms an image at a distance of 30 cm from the lens. The object distance is:
17. The energy of a photon with a wavelength of 400 nm is approximately (h = 6.626 × 10⁻³⁴ J·s, c = 3 × 10⁸ m/s):
18. The resistivity of a wire is 1.6 × 10⁻⁸ Ω·m, its length is 2 m, and its cross-sectional area is 0.5 mm². The resistance of the wire is:
19. The escape velocity from a planet of mass M and radius R is:
20. The angular momentum of a rotating body is conserved when:
21. The frequency of a tuning fork is 256 Hz. If the speed of sound in air is 340 m/s, the wavelength of the sound produced is:
22. The work done by a gas during an isothermal expansion is given by:
23. The impedance of a series LCR circuit at resonance is:
24. A particle of mass 0.1 kg is moving with a velocity of 5 m/s. Its de Broglie wavelength is (h = 6.626 × 10⁻³⁴ J·s):
25. The specific heat capacity of a gas at constant volume is 0.5 kJ/kg·K, and at constant pressure is 0.8 kJ/kg·K. The gas constant R is:
Chemistry (25 Questions)
26. The hybridization of carbon in acetylene (C₂H₂) is:
27. The standard enthalpy change for the reaction 2H₂(g) + O₂(g) → 2H₂O(l) is -572 kJ. The enthalpy of formation of H₂O(l) is:
28. The pH of a 0.01 M solution of HCl is:
29. The bond order of O₂⁺ is:
30. The rate constant of a first-order reaction is 0.0693 min⁻¹. The half-life of the reaction is:
31. The oxidation number of sulfur in H₂SO₅ is:
32. The IUPAC name of CH₃CH₂COCH₃ is:
33. The coordination number of the central ion in [Co(NH₃)₆]³⁺ is:
34. The number of moles of NaOH required to neutralize 0.1 mol of H₂SO₄ is:
35. The shape of XeF₄ molecule according to VSEPR theory is:
36. The Gibbs free energy change for a reaction is negative. The reaction is:
37. The molar conductivity of a 0.01 M solution of NaCl is 120 S cm² mol⁻¹. The conductivity of the solution is:
38. The functional group in CH₃CH₂OH is:
39. The order of a reaction with a rate law of rate = k[A]²[B] is:
40. The magnetic moment of [Ni(CN)₄]²⁻ is (Ni atomic number = 28):
41. The solubility product of AgCl is 1.8 × 10⁻¹⁰. The solubility of AgCl in water is:
42. The catalyst used in the hydrogenation of alkenes is:
43. The degree of dissociation of a 0.1 M weak acid with Ka = 1 × 10⁻⁵ is:
44. The number of sigma and pi bonds in benzene (C₆H₆) is:
45. The standard electrode potential of Zn²⁺/Zn is -0.76 V, and that of Cu²⁺/Cu is +0.34 V. The cell potential of the Zn-Cu cell is:
46. The primary product of the ozonolysis of ethene followed by hydrolysis is:
47. The crystal field splitting energy (Δ₀) for [Cr(H₂O)₆]³⁺ is higher than that for:
48. The van’t Hoff factor for a 0.1 M solution of K₂SO₄ is:
49. The major product of the reaction of 1-butene with HBr in the presence of peroxide is:
50. The equilibrium constant for the reaction N₂(g) + 3H₂(g) ⇌ 2NH₃(g) is 4 × 10⁻⁴ at 300 K. The equilibrium constant for 2NH₃(g) ⇌ N₂(g) + 3H₂(g) is:
Biology (25 Questions)
51. The number of ATP molecules produced per glucose molecule during aerobic respiration is:
52. The anticodon for the codon AUG on mRNA is:
53. The Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium is disturbed by:
54. The primary site of protein synthesis in eukaryotic cells is:
55. The restriction enzyme EcoRI cuts DNA at the sequence:
56. The primary source of genetic variation in a population is:
57. The hormone responsible for regulating blood calcium levels is:
58. The process of RNA synthesis is called:
59. The number of chromosomes in a human somatic cell is:
60. The enzyme that catalyzes the conversion of pyruvate to lactate in anaerobic conditions is:
61. The C4 pathway in plants is an adaptation to:
62. The neurotransmitter released at the neuromuscular junction is:
63. The primary site of gas exchange in the lungs is:
64. The genetic disorder caused by an extra chromosome 21 is:
65. The process by which bacteria take up foreign DNA from the environment is:
66. The primary pigment involved in the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis is:
67. The term ‘homeostasis’ refers to:
68. The enzyme responsible for unwinding DNA during replication is:
69. The organelle responsible for detoxifying harmful substances in the liver is:
70. The polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is used to:
71. The hormone that stimulates the production of red blood cells is:
72. The stage of meiosis where crossing over occurs is:
73. The molecule that carries amino acids to the ribosome during protein synthesis is:
74. The primary function of the lysosome is:
75. The term ‘apoptosis’ refers to:
Basics of Forensic Science (25 Questions)
76. The polymerase chain reaction (PCR) in forensic science is primarily used to:
77. The ridge characteristics of fingerprints used for identification are called:
78. The primary advantage of using short tandem repeats (STRs) in DNA profiling is:
79. The confirmatory test for blood at a crime scene is:
80. The technique used to identify the elemental composition of trace evidence is:
81. The angle of impact of a bloodstain can be used to determine:
82. The primary method for analyzing volatile compounds in arson investigations is:
83. The time since death can be estimated by measuring the concentration of:
84. The technique used to compare tool marks in forensic investigations is:
85. The primary purpose of a forensic autopsy is to:
86. The technique used to detect latent fingerprints on non-porous surfaces is:
87. The primary source of error in DNA profiling is:
88. The technique used to analyze the composition of paint samples is:
89. The primary role of a forensic odontologist is to:
90. The technique used to determine the blood alcohol concentration is:
91. The primary purpose of maintaining the chain of custody is to:
92. The technique used to analyze the chemical composition of inks is:
93. The primary method for estimating the time of death using insect activity is:
94. The primary source of mitochondrial DNA in forensic analysis is:
95. The technique used to analyze the striation marks on a bullet is:
96. The primary method for detecting latent fingerprints on porous surfaces is:
97. The primary purpose of forensic serology is to:
98. The primary method for analyzing the chemical composition of explosives is:
99. The primary purpose of forensic anthropology is to:
100. The primary method for determining the age of a bloodstain is:
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