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M.Sc. Forensic Science - NFAT Mock Test

NFAT Entrance Exam Mock Test for M.Sc. Forensic Science 2025

Physics (25 Questions)

1. A body of mass 2 kg is accelerated at 3 m/s². The net force acting on it is:

A) 4 N
B) 6 N
C) 8 N
D) 12 N

2. A wave has a frequency of 500 Hz and a speed of 350 m/s. Its wavelength is:

A) 0.5 m
B) 1.4 m
C) 0.7 m
D) 2.0 m

3. The focal length of a concave mirror is 20 cm. An object is placed 30 cm from the mirror. The image distance is:

A) 60 cm
B) 15 cm
C) 30 cm
D) 10 cm

4. The resistance of a wire of length 2 m and cross-sectional area 1 mm² is 0.4 Ω. If the resistivity of the material is 1.6 × 10⁻⁸ Ω·m, the length of another wire of the same material with resistance 0.8 Ω and same cross-sectional area is:

A) 1 m
B) 3 m
C) 4 m
D) 6 m

5. A ball is thrown vertically upward with an initial velocity of 20 m/s. The time taken to reach the maximum height (g = 9.8 m/s²) is:

A) 1.5 s
B) 2.0 s
C) 2.5 s
D) 3.0 s

6. The energy stored in a spring with spring constant 100 N/m when stretched by 0.2 m is:

A) 2 J
B) 4 J
C) 1 J
D) 0.5 J

7. A convex lens forms a real image twice the size of the object. If the object distance is 15 cm, the focal length of the lens is:

A) 10 cm
B) 20 cm
C) 30 cm
D) 40 cm

8. The half-life of a radioactive isotope is 12 hours. The time taken for 75% of the sample to decay is:

A) 18 hours
B) 24 hours
C) 36 hours
D) 48 hours

9. The electric field at a point 0.1 m from a point charge of 2 µC is:

A) 1.8 × 10⁵ N/C
B) 3.6 × 10⁵ N/C
C) 0.9 × 10⁵ N/C
D) 2.7 × 10⁵ N/C

10. The angular momentum of a rotating object with moment of inertia 2 kg·m² and angular velocity 5 rad/s is:

A) 5 kg·m²/s
B) 7 kg·m²/s
C) 10 kg·m²/s
D) 15 kg·m²/s

11. The critical angle for a medium with refractive index 1.414 relative to air is:

A) 30°
B) 45°
C) 60°
D) 90°

12. The power dissipated in a resistor of 10 Ω carrying a current of 2 A is:

A) 40 W
B) 20 W
C) 80 W
D) 100 W

13. The time period of a simple pendulum of length 1 m at a place where g = 9.8 m/s² is:

A) 1.5 s
B) 1.8 s
C) 2.0 s
D) 2.5 s

14. The work done in moving a charge of 3 µC in an electric field from a point at 100 V to a point at 200 V is:

A) 3 × 10⁻⁴ J
B) 3 × 10⁻⁴ J
C) 6 × 10⁻⁴ J
D) 1.5 × 10⁻⁴ J

15. The de Broglie wavelength of an electron accelerated through 100 V (h = 6.626 × 10⁻³⁴ J·s, m = 9.11 × 10⁻³¹ kg) is approximately:

A) 0.12 nm
B) 0.24 nm
C) 0.06 nm
D) 0.36 nm

16. The speed of sound in air at 25°C is approximately:

A) 300 m/s
B) 320 m/s
C) 343 m/s
D) 360 m/s

17. The pressure of an ideal gas is doubled while its volume is halved at constant temperature. The new pressure is:

A) Same as initial
B) Four times the initial
C) Twice the initial
D) Half the initial

18. The focal length of a lens with power -2 D is:

A) -0.5 m
B) 0.5 m
C) -0.25 m
D) 0.25 m

19. The magnetic field at the center of a circular coil of radius 0.1 m carrying a current of 2 A is:

A) 1.26 × 10⁻⁴ T
B) 2.52 × 10⁻⁴ T
C) 1.26 × 10⁻³ T
D) 2.52 × 10⁻³ T

20. The kinetic energy of a 2 kg object moving at 5 m/s is:

A) 25 J
B) 50 J
C) 75 J
D) 100 J

21. The efficiency of a Carnot engine operating between 400 K and 300 K is:

A) 25%
B) 50%
C) 75%
D) 100%

22. The wavelength of light emitted by an electron transitioning from n=3 to n=2 in a hydrogen atom is approximately (R = 1.097 × 10⁷ m⁻¹):

A) 486 nm
B) 434 nm
C) 656 nm
D) 410 nm

23. The torque on a dipole of moment 0.5 C·m in an electric field of 2 × 10³ N/C at an angle of 90° is:

A) 500 N·m
B) 1000 N·m
C) 1500 N·m
D) 2000 N·m

24. The moment of inertia of a thin rod of mass M and length L about an axis perpendicular to its length through its center is:

A) ML²/12
B) ML²/6
C) ML²/3
D) ML²/4

25. The viscosity of a fluid is measured in:

A) kg/m²
B) kg/m·s²
C) kg/m·s
D) kg·m/s

Chemistry (25 Questions)

26. The hybridization of the central atom in PCl₅ is:

A) sp³d
B) sp³d²
C) sp³
D) d²sp³

27. The standard enthalpy of formation of NH₃(g) is -46 kJ/mol. The enthalpy change for the decomposition of 2 moles of NH₃(g) is:

A) -92 kJ
B) +92 kJ
C) -46 kJ
D) +46 kJ

28. The pH of a 0.01 M HCl solution is:

A) 1
B) 3
C) 2
D) 4

29. The bond order of O₂⁻ is:

A) 1
B) 1.5
C) 2
D) 2.5

30. The rate constant of a first-order reaction is 0.02 s⁻¹. The half-life is:

A) 34.65 s
B) 50 s
C) 25 s
D) 17.32 s

31. The oxidation number of sulfur in H₂SO₄ is:

A) +4
B) +6
C) +2
D) +8

32. The IUPAC name of CH₃CH₂COOH is:

A) Propanoic acid
B) Ethanoic acid
C) Butanoic acid
D) Methanoic acid

33. The coordination number of the central ion in [Co(NH₃)₆]³⁺ is:

A) 4
B) 5
C) 6
D) 8

34. The number of moles of NaOH required to neutralize 0.1 mol of H₂SO₄ is:

A) 0.1 mol
B) 0.2 mol
C) 0.05 mol
D) 0.4 mol

35. The shape of the XeF₄ molecule according to VSEPR theory is:

A) Square planar
B) Tetrahedral
C) Octahedral
D) Trigonal bipyramidal

36. The Gibbs free energy change for a process is negative. The process is:

A) Non-spontaneous
B) Spontaneous
C) At equilibrium
D) Reversible

37. The molar conductivity of a 0.01 M solution of NaCl is 126 S cm² mol⁻¹. The conductivity of the solution is:

A) 0.00126 S cm⁻¹
B) 0.0126 S cm⁻¹
C) 0.00126 S cm⁻¹
D) 0.126 S cm⁻¹

38. The functional group in CH₃OH is:

A) Hydroxyl
B) Carbonyl
C) Carboxyl
D) Amine

39. The order of a reaction with rate law rate = k[A]² is:

A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 0

40. The magnetic moment of [Ni(CN)₄]²⁻ is (Ni atomic number = 28):

A) 0
B) 1.73 BM
C) 2.83 BM
D) 3.87 BM

41. The solubility product of AgCl is 1.8 × 10⁻¹⁰. The solubility of AgCl in water is:

A) 1.8 × 10⁻⁵ mol/L
B) 3.6 × 10⁻⁵ mol/L
C) 1.34 × 10⁻⁵ mol/L
D) 2.7 × 10⁻⁵ mol/L

42. The catalyst used in the contact process for sulfuric acid production is:

A) Iron
B) Vanadium pentoxide
C) Platinum
D) Nickel

43. The degree of dissociation of a 0.1 M weak acid with Ka = 1 × 10⁻⁵ is:

A) 1%
B) 0.1%
C) 2%
D) 0.01%

44. The number of sigma and pi bonds in ethene (C₂H₄) is:

A) 5 sigma, 1 pi
B) 4 sigma, 2 pi
C) 6 sigma, 0 pi
D) 3 sigma, 3 pi

45. The standard electrode potential of Cu²⁺/Cu is +0.34 V, and that of Fe²⁺/Fe is -0.44 V. The cell potential of the Fe-Cu cell is:

A) 0.10 V
B) 0.68 V
C) 0.78 V
D) 0.44 V

46. The major product of the reaction of ethene with Br₂ in CCl₄ is:

A) 1,2-Dibromoethane
B) 1-Bromoethane
C) 2,2-Dibromoethane
D) Bromomethane

47. The crystal field splitting energy (Δ₀) for [Co(NH₃)₆]³⁺ is higher than that for:

A) [Co(CN)₆]³⁻
B) [CoF₆]³⁻
C) [CoCl₆]³⁻
D) [CoBr₆]³⁻

48. The van’t Hoff factor for a 0.1 M solution of K₂SO₄ is:

A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4

49. The primary product of the ozonolysis of ethene followed by reductive hydrolysis is:

A) Formaldehyde
B) Acetaldehyde
C) Propanal
D) Butanal

50. The equilibrium constant for the reaction N₂(g) + O₂(g) ⇌ 2NO(g) is 0.1 at 2000 K. The equilibrium constant for 2NO(g) ⇌ N₂(g) + O₂(g) is:

A) 0.01
B) 10
C) 0.1
D) 1

Biology (25 Questions)

51. The number of ATP molecules produced per glucose molecule during the Krebs cycle is:

A) 4
B) 6
C) 2
D) 8

52. The anticodon for the codon AUG on mRNA is:

A) UAC
B) AUG
C) GUA
D) CAU

53. The Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium assumes:

A) Small population size
B) Random mating
C) High mutation rate
D) Natural selection

54. The site of protein synthesis in a cell is:

A) Nucleus
B) Mitochondria
C) Ribosomes
D) Golgi apparatus

55. The restriction enzyme EcoRI cuts DNA at the sequence:

A) GGATCC
B) GAATTC
C) AAGCTT
D) CTTAAG

56. The primary source of genetic variation in a population is:

A) Genetic drift
B) Gene flow
C) Mutation
D) Selection

57. The hormone responsible for regulating calcium levels in blood is:

A) Parathyroid hormone
B) Insulin
C) Glucagon
D) Adrenaline

58. The process of DNA synthesis is called:

A) Translation
B) Replication
C) Transcription
D) Transformation

59. The number of chromosomes in a human somatic cell is:

A) 46
B) 23
C) 44
D) 48

60. The enzyme that catalyzes the conversion of pyruvate to lactate in anaerobic conditions is:

A) Pyruvate kinase
B) Aldolase
C) Lactate dehydrogenase
D) Hexokinase

61. The C4 pathway in plants is an adaptation to:

A) High temperatures
B) Low light
C) High humidity
D) Low CO₂ levels

62. The neurotransmitter responsible for inhibitory synaptic transmission is:

A) Glutamate
B) GABA
C) Dopamine
D) Serotonin

63. The primary site of glucose reabsorption in the nephron is:

A) Glomerulus
B) Loop of Henle
C) Proximal convoluted tubule
D) Distal convoluted tubule

64. The genetic disorder caused by an extra chromosome 21 is:

A) Turner’s syndrome
B) Down’s syndrome
C) Klinefelter’s syndrome
D) Phenylketonuria

65. The process by which bacteria take up DNA from the environment is:

A) Conjugation
B) Transduction
C) Transformation
D) Replication

66. The pigment responsible for capturing light in photosynthesis is:

A) Chlorophyll a
B) Chlorophyll b
C) Carotene
D) Xanthophyll

67. The term ‘homeostasis’ refers to:

A) Energy production
B) Cell division
C) Maintenance of internal balance
D) Protein synthesis

68. The enzyme responsible for unwinding DNA during replication is:

A) Ligase
B) Helicase
C) Polymerase
D) Topoisomerase

69. The organelle responsible for detoxification in a cell is:

A) Mitochondria
B) Golgi apparatus
C) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
D) Lysosomes

70. The technique used to amplify DNA segments is:

A) Gel electrophoresis
B) Polymerase chain reaction
C) DNA sequencing
D) Gene cloning

71. The hormone that regulates sodium reabsorption in the kidneys is:

A) Insulin
B) Glucagon
C) Aldosterone
D) Cortisol

72. The stage of meiosis where crossing over occurs is:

A) Prophase I
B) Prophase II
C) Metaphase I
D) Anaphase I

73. The molecule that carries amino acids to the ribosome during protein synthesis is:

A) mRNA
B) tRNA
C) rRNA
D) DNA

74. The primary function of the lysosome is:

A) Protein synthesis
B) Energy production
C) Digestion of cellular waste
D) Lipid synthesis

75. The term ‘apoptosis’ refers to:

A) Uncontrolled cell death
B) Programmed cell death
C) Cell differentiation
D) Cell division

Basics of Forensic Science (25 Questions)

76. The technique used to separate DNA fragments in forensic analysis is:

A) Polymerase chain reaction
B) Gel electrophoresis
C) Mass spectrometry
D) Thin-layer chromatography

77. The primary classification of fingerprints includes:

A) Loops, whorls, and arches
B) Minutiae, ridges, and valleys
C) Cores, deltas, and bifurcations
D) Patterns, loops, and ridges

78. The advantage of mitochondrial DNA in forensic analysis is its:

A) Low mutation rate
B) Low copy number
C) High copy number
D) Nuclear origin

79. The confirmatory test for blood at a crime scene is:

A) Kastle-Meyer test
B) Teichmann test
C) Luminol test
D) Phenolphthalein test

80. The technique used to analyze gunshot residue is:

A) Scanning electron microscopy with energy-dispersive X-ray spectroscopy
B) Gas chromatography-mass spectrometry
C) Fourier-transform infrared spectroscopy
D) Thin-layer chromatography

81. The angle of impact of a bloodstain is calculated using:

A) Blood volume
B) Surface tension
C) Width-to-length ratio
D) Blood viscosity

82. The primary method for analyzing toxic substances in biological samples is:

A) Infrared spectroscopy
B) Liquid chromatography-mass spectrometry
C) Ultraviolet-visible spectroscopy
D) Comparison microscopy

83. The time since death can be estimated by measuring:

A) Rigor mortis
B) Blood pH
C) Hemoglobin levels
D) Blood glucose levels

84. The technique used to compare fiber samples in forensic investigations is:

A) Gas chromatography
B) Mass spectrometry
C) Microscopy
D) X-ray diffraction

85. The primary role of a forensic serologist is to:

A) Analyze skeletal remains
B) Identify body fluids
C) Analyze fingerprints
D) Study insect activity

86. The technique used to detect latent fingerprints on non-porous surfaces is:

A) Ninhydrin
B) Cyanoacrylate fuming
C) Silver nitrate
D) Iodine fuming

87. The primary source of error in DNA analysis is:

A) Low sample quality
B) High mutation rate
C) Contamination
D) Incomplete database

88. The technique used to analyze paint samples is:

A) Gas chromatography
B) Fourier-transform infrared spectroscopy
C) Thin-layer chromatography
D) Ultraviolet-visible spectroscopy

89. The primary role of a forensic odontologist is to:

A) Analyze skeletal remains
B) Detect toxic substances
C) Identify individuals through dental records
D) Study insect activity

90. The primary method for analyzing the chemical composition of explosives is:

A) Gas chromatography-mass spectrometry
B) Comparison microscopy
C) X-ray diffraction
D) Ultraviolet-visible spectroscopy

91. The primary purpose of maintaining the chain of custody is to:

A) Speed up evidence analysis
B) Ensure evidence integrity
C) Reduce evidence storage
D) Simplify evidence collection

92. The technique used to analyze the composition of bone samples is:

A) Gas chromatography
B) Mass spectrometry
C) X-ray diffraction
D) Thin-layer chromatography

93. The primary method for estimating the time since death using insect activity is:

A) Forensic anthropology
B) Forensic entomology
C) Forensic serology
D) Forensic pathology

94. The primary source of mitochondrial DNA in forensic analysis is:

A) Blood
B) Sweat
C) Hair shaft
D) Saliva

95. The technique used to analyze bullet striations is:

A) Gas chromatography
B) Infrared spectroscopy
C) Comparison microscopy
D) Mass spectrometry

96. The primary method for detecting latent fingerprints on metal surfaces is:

A) Ninhydrin
B) Cyanoacrylate fuming
C) Silver nitrate
D) Iodine fuming

97. The primary purpose of forensic anthropology is to:

A) Analyze skeletal remains
B) Analyze fingerprints
C) Identify body fluids
D) Study insect activity

98. The primary method for analyzing the chemical composition of inks is:

A) Gas chromatography
B) Mass spectrometry
C) Thin-layer chromatography
D) Ultraviolet-visible spectroscopy

99. The primary purpose of forensic toxicology is to:

A) Analyze skeletal remains
B) Detect toxic substances
C) Identify fingerprints
D) Study insect activity

100. The primary method for determining the presence of saliva at a crime scene is:

A) Amylase test
B) Kastle-Meyer test
C) Takayama test
D) Luminol test

Test Results

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