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M.Sc. Clinical Psychology-NFAT Mock Test

NFAT Entrance Exam Mock Test for M.Sc. Clinical Psychology 2025

General Psychology (34 Questions)

1. The process by which we select, organize, and interpret sensory information is called:

A) Sensation
B) Perception
C) Attention
D) Cognition

2. Who is considered the father of classical conditioning?

A) Ivan Pavlov
B) B.F. Skinner
C) John Watson
D) Sigmund Freud

3. The term used to describe a relatively permanent change in behavior due to experience is:

A) Instinct
B) Reflex
C) Learning
D) Motivation

4. According to Maslow’s hierarchy of needs, which need must be met first?

A) Esteem
B) Physiological
C) Safety
D) Self-actualization

5. The part of the brain responsible for regulating emotions is:

A) Limbic system
B) Cerebellum
C) Medulla
D) Corpus callosum

6. The defense mechanism where unacceptable impulses are expressed in a more acceptable form is called:

A) Repression
B) Projection
C) Sublimation
D) Denial

7. The stage of Piaget’s cognitive development where children develop object permanence is:

A) Preoperational
B) Sensorimotor
C) Concrete operational
D) Formal operational

8. The term for a person’s characteristic patterns of behavior, thoughts, and emotions is:

A) Personality
B) Attitude
C) Temperament
D) Mood

9. The theory that emphasizes the role of unconscious conflicts in behavior is:

A) Behaviorism
B) Humanism
C) Psychoanalysis
D) Cognitive psychology

10. The process of maintaining a stable internal environment is called:

A) Adaptation
B) Homeostasis
C) Equilibrium
D) Assimilation

11. The neurotransmitter associated with mood regulation is:

A) Serotonin
B) Dopamine
C) Acetylcholine
D) GABA

12. The concept of ‘self-actualization’ was introduced by:

A) Sigmund Freud
B) Carl Rogers
C) Abraham Maslow
D) Erik Erikson

13. The memory system that holds information for a few seconds is:

A) Long-term memory
B) Short-term memory
C) Sensory memory
D) Episodic memory

14. The phenomenon where people perform better in the presence of others is called:

A) Social facilitation
B) Social loafing
C) Groupthink
D) Conformity

15. The term for an irrational fear of a specific object or situation is:

A) Anxiety
B) Obsession
C) Phobia
D) Compulsion

16. The theory that suggests behavior is motivated by drives to reduce tension is:

A) Instinct theory
B) Drive-reduction theory
C) Arousal theory
D) Incentive theory

17. The ‘Big Five’ personality traits include all except:

A) Intelligence
B) Openness
C) Conscientiousness
D) Extraversion

18. The term for a mental shortcut used to make decisions is:

A) Algorithm
B) Prototype
C) Heuristic
D) Schema

19. The part of the neuron that receives signals is:

A) Axon
B) Dendrite
C) Soma
D) Myelin sheath

20. The term for the tendency to attribute one’s own behavior to external causes is:

A) Self-serving bias
B) Fundamental attribution error
C) Halo effect
D) Confirmation bias

21. The therapy that focuses on changing irrational thoughts is:

A) Psychoanalysis
B) Behavior therapy
C) Cognitive therapy
D) Humanistic therapy

22. The term for a sudden insight into a problem’s solution is:

A) Trial and error
B) Insight
C) Fixation
D) Functional fixedness

23. The psychologist who developed the concept of ‘operant conditioning’ is:

A) B.F. Skinner
B) Ivan Pavlov
C) John Watson
D) Carl Jung

24. The term for a group’s influence on an individual’s behavior is:

A) Compliance
B) Obedience
C) Conformity
D) Cohesion

25. The term for the memory of personal experiences is:

A) Procedural memory
B) Episodic memory
C) Semantic memory
D) Working memory

26. The term for the tendency to overestimate the accuracy of one’s judgments is:

A) Overconfidence
B) Hindsight bias
C) Framing effect
D) Availability heuristic

27. The part of the brain responsible for coordinating movement is:

A) Hypothalamus
B) Thalamus
C) Cerebellum
D) Hippocampus

28. The term for a psychological disorder characterized by excessive worry is:

A) Depression
B) Generalized anxiety disorder
C) Schizophrenia
D) Bipolar disorder

29. The term for the tendency to favor information that confirms existing beliefs is:

A) Confirmation bias
B) Anchoring bias
C) Representativeness heuristic
D) Availability heuristic

30. The therapy that involves gradual exposure to a feared stimulus is:

A) Psychoanalysis
B) Cognitive therapy
C) Systematic desensitization
D) Client-centered therapy

31. The term for the emotional tone of a memory is:

A) Flashbulb memory
B) Mood-congruent memory
C) Implicit memory
D) Explicit memory

32. The term for a sudden and intense emotional response is:

A) Affect
B) Mood
C) Temperament
D) Disposition

33. The term for the belief that one can control one’s own outcomes is:

A) Self-esteem
B) Self-concept
C) Locus of control
D) Self-efficacy

34. The term for the tendency to obey authority figures is:

A) Conformity
B) Obedience
C) Compliance
D) Social facilitation

Research Methodology (33 Questions)

35. The variable that is manipulated in an experiment is called:

A) Independent variable
B) Dependent variable
C) Control variable
D) Confounding variable

36. A study that observes the same group over an extended period is called:

A) Cross-sectional
B) Longitudinal
C) Case study
D) Experimental

37. The process of selecting a subset of a population for a study is called:

A) Randomization
B) Stratification
C) Sampling
D) Generalization

38. A research design that does not manipulate variables is called:

A) Non-experimental
B) Quasi-experimental
C) Experimental
D) Factorial

39. The term for the extent to which a study measures what it intends to measure is:

A) Reliability
B) Validity
C) Generalizability
D) Replicability

40. A study that uses interviews and observations to gather data is an example of:

A) Quantitative research
B) Experimental research
C) Qualitative research
D) Correlational research

41. The group in an experiment that does not receive the treatment is called:

A) Control group
B) Experimental group
C) Sample group
D) Population group

42. The term for consistency of results across repeated measurements is:

A) Validity
B) Reliability
C) Accuracy
D) Precision

43. A hypothesis that states no relationship between variables is called:

A) Alternative hypothesis
B) Directional hypothesis
C) Null hypothesis
D) Research hypothesis

44. The process of assigning participants to groups randomly is called:

A) Randomization
B) Stratification
C) Matching
D) Sampling

45. A variable that affects the outcome of an experiment but is not controlled is called:

A) Independent variable
B) Confounding variable
C) Dependent variable
D) Control variable

46. A study that examines the relationship between two variables without manipulation is:

A) Experimental
B) Quasi-experimental
C) Correlational
D) Descriptive

47. The ethical principle that requires informed agreement from participants is:

A) Informed consent
B) Confidentiality
C) Debriefing
D) Anonymity

48. A research method that involves an in-depth study of a single individual is:

A) Survey
B) Case study
C) Experiment
D) Observation

49. The term for the extent to which results can be applied to a larger population is:

A) Reliability
B) Validity
C) Generalizability
D) Replicability

50. A sampling method where every member of the population has an equal chance of selection is:

A) Random sampling
B) Convenience sampling
C) Purposive sampling
D) Snowball sampling

51. The term for the process of summarizing and interpreting data is:

A) Data collection
B) Data analysis
C) Data validation
D) Data sampling

52. A research design that uses both experimental and control groups is called:

A) Correlational
B) Descriptive
C) True experimental
D) Non-experimental

53. The term for a detailed plan of how a study will be conducted is:

A) Research design
B) Hypothesis
C) Sampling frame
D) Data collection method

54. The ethical principle that ensures participant information is kept private is:

A) Informed consent
B) Confidentiality
C) Debriefing
D) Anonymity

55. A study that collects data at a single point in time is called:

A) Longitudinal
B) Experimental
C) Cross-sectional
D) Case study

56. The term for a testable prediction about the relationship between variables is:

A) Hypothesis
B) Theory
C) Model
D) Paradigm

57. A sampling method that selects participants based on specific characteristics is:

A) Random sampling
B) Purposive sampling
C) Convenience sampling
D) Cluster sampling

58. The term for the process of explaining the study to participants after completion is:

A) Informed consent
B) Confidentiality
C) Debriefing
D) Anonymity

59. A research method that uses numerical data to test hypotheses is:

A) Quantitative research
B) Qualitative research
C) Mixed-methods research
D) Descriptive research

60. The term for the population from which a sample is drawn is:

A) Sample
B) Sampling frame
C) Subset
D) Cohort

61. A research design that lacks random assignment but manipulates variables is:

A) True experimental
B) Non-experimental
C) Quasi-experimental
D) Correlational

62. The term for the process of ensuring a study can be repeated with similar results is:

A) Replicability
B) Validity
C) Reliability
D) Generalizability

63. A method that involves observing behavior in a natural setting is:

A) Survey
B) Naturalistic observation
C) Experiment
D) Case study

64. The term for a study that combines both qualitative and quantitative methods is:

A) Experimental research
B) Correlational research
C) Mixed-methods research
D) Descriptive research

65. The term for the process of selecting participants based on availability is:

A) Convenience sampling
B) Random sampling
C) Stratified sampling
D) Cluster sampling

66. The term for a study that describes phenomena without manipulating variables is:

A) Experimental
B) Descriptive
C) Correlational
D) Quasi-experimental

67. The term for the process of ensuring participants are not identified in a study is:

A) Informed consent
B) Confidentiality
C) Anonymity
D) Debriefing

Statistics (33 Questions)

68. The measure of central tendency that represents the middle value in a dataset is:

A) Median
B) Mean
C) Mode
D) Midrange

69. The measure of variability that represents the average distance from the mean is:

A) Range
B) Standard deviation
C) Variance
D) Interquartile range

70. A distribution with a single peak is called:

A) Bimodal
B) Multimodal
C) Unimodal
D) Uniform

71. The probability of an event that is certain to occur is:

A) 1
B) 0
C) 0.5
D) -1

72. The statistical test used to compare means of two groups is:

A) ANOVA
B) t-test
C) Chi-square test
D) Correlation

73. The term for the strength and direction of a relationship between two variables is:

A) Regression
B) Variance
C) Correlation
D) Covariance

74. The value that divides a dataset into two equal parts is called:

A) Median
B) Mean
C) Mode
D) Quartile

75. The test used to analyze categorical data is:

A) t-test
B) Chi-square test
C) ANOVA
D) Regression

76. The term for the square of the standard deviation is:

A) Range
B) Mean
C) Variance
D) Mode

77. The probability of two independent events occurring together is calculated by:

A) Multiplication
B) Addition
C) Subtraction
D) Division

78. The statistical test used to compare means of three or more groups is:

A) t-test
B) ANOVA
C) Chi-square test
D) Correlation

79. A distribution that is symmetrical around the mean is called:

A) Skewed
B) Uniform
C) Normal
D) Bimodal

80. The term for the range of values within which the true population parameter lies is:

A) Confidence interval
B) Standard error
C) P-value
D) Margin of error

81. The measure of variability that is the difference between the highest and lowest values is:

A) Standard deviation
B) Range
C) Variance
D) Interquartile range

82. The term for the probability of rejecting the null hypothesis when it is true is:

A) Type II error
B) Beta
C) Type I error
D) Power

83. The measure of central tendency most affected by extreme values is:

A) Mean
B) Median
C) Mode
D) Midrange

84. The term for the strength of a statistical test to detect an effect is:

A) Significance
B) Power
C) Effect size
D) Confidence level

85. The correlation coefficient ranges from:

A) 0 to 1
B) -1 to 0
C) -1 to 1
D) 0 to 2

86. The term for the average of squared deviations from the mean is:

A) Variance
B) Standard deviation
C) Range
D) Interquartile range

87. The probability of either of two mutually exclusive events occurring is calculated by:

A) Multiplication
B) Addition
C) Subtraction
D) Division

88. The term for the number of standard deviations a value is from the mean is:

A) Percentile
B) Quartile
C) Z-score
D) T-score

89. The statistical method used to predict a dependent variable based on independent variables is:

A) Regression
B) Correlation
C) ANOVA
D) Chi-square test

90. The term for the probability distribution of a sample mean is:

A) Normal distribution
B) Sampling distribution
C) Population distribution
D) Binomial distribution

91. The term for the smallest difference that can be detected as significant is:

A) P-value
B) Confidence interval
C) Effect size
D) Standard error

92. The measure of variability that represents the range between the first and third quartiles is:

A) Interquartile range
B) Range
C) Variance
D) Standard deviation

93. The probability of rejecting the null hypothesis when it is false is:

A) Type I error
B) Power
C) Type II error
D) Alpha level

94. The term for a dataset with more values below the mean is:

A) Symmetrical
B) Negatively skewed
C) Positively skewed
D) Uniform

95. The statistical test used to compare observed and expected frequencies is:

A) Chi-square test
B) t-test
C) ANOVA
D) Regression

96. The term for the average error of a sample mean from the population mean is:

A) Confidence interval
B) Standard error
C) P-value
D) Effect size

97. The measure of central tendency that represents the most frequent value is:

A) Mean
B) Median
C) Mode
D) Midrange

98. The term for the proportion of variance explained by a regression model is:

A) R-squared
B) P-value
C) Beta coefficient
D) Standard error

99. The term for a distribution with two peaks is:

A) Unimodal
B) Bimodal
C) Normal
D) Skewed

100. The term for the likelihood of accepting a false null hypothesis is:

A) Type I error
B) Power
C) Type II error
D) Alpha level

Test Results

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