This Organisation is Managed by A Team of NFSU Alumni;
Stay away from Fraudster

B.Sc. Criminology and Forensic Science- NFAT Mock Test

NFAT Entrance Exam Mock Test for B.Sc. Criminology and Forensic Science 2025

Physics, Chemistry, and Biology (10+2 Level) (50 Questions)

1. A satellite moves in a circular orbit around Earth. Its centripetal force is provided by:

A) Frictional force
B) Gravitational force
C) Magnetic force
D) Electrostatic force

2. The dimensional formula for angular momentum is:

A) [MLT⁻¹]
B) [ML²T⁻²]
C) [ML²T⁻¹]
D) [MLT⁻²]

3. A projectile is launched with velocity 30 m/s at 60° to the horizontal. The horizontal range is (g = 10 m/s²):

A) 45√3 m
B) 90 m
C) 30√3 m
D) 60 m

4. The angle of incidence for which the angle of refraction is 90° is called:

A) Angle of deviation
B) Critical angle
C) Brewster’s angle
D) Glancing angle

5. In an AC circuit, the impedance of a series LCR circuit is minimum at:

A) High frequency
B) Low frequency
C) Resonance
D) Zero frequency

6. The Heisenberg uncertainty principle states that it is impossible to simultaneously determine:

A) Position and momentum
B) Energy and time
C) Velocity and mass
D) Frequency and wavelength

7. The activity of a radioactive sample reduces to 1/8 of its initial value in 30 days. Its half-life is:

A) 5 days
B) 10 days
C) 15 days
D) 20 days

8. The electric potential at the center of a uniformly charged spherical shell is:

A) Zero
B) Infinite
C) Same as on the surface
D) Half of the surface potential

9. The moment of inertia of a solid sphere about its diameter is:

A) 2/5 MR²
B) 2/3 MR²
C) MR²
D) 1/2 MR²

10. The speed of sound in a gas is proportional to:

A) Density
B) Square root of temperature
C) Pressure
D) Volume

11. The energy of a photon with wavelength λ is given by:

A) hλ
B) h/λ
C) hc/λ
D) hλ/c

12. The coefficient of restitution for a perfectly inelastic collision is:

A) 0
B) 1
C) 0.5
D) 2

13. In Young’s double-slit experiment, the intensity of light at a point on the screen is maximum when the path difference is:

A) λ/2
B) nλ
C) (n+1/2)λ
D) λ/4

14. The magnetic field due to a straight current-carrying conductor at a distance r is proportional to:

A) I/r²
B) I²/r
C) I/r
D) I²/r²

15. The time period of a satellite in a circular orbit close to Earth’s surface depends on:

A) Mass of the satellite
B) Radius of Earth
C) Altitude of orbit
D) Speed of satellite

16. The orbital velocity of a satellite is proportional to:

A) 1/√r
B) √r
C) r
D) 1/r

17. The SI unit of electric dipole moment is:

A) Coulomb
B) Volt
C) Coulomb-meter
D) Ampere-meter

18. The hybridization of nitrogen in ammonia (NH₃) is:

A) sp²
B) sp³
C) sp
D) dsp²

19. The standard entropy change of a reaction is a measure of:

A) Disorder of the system
B) Heat released
C) Enthalpy change
D) Free energy

20. The oxidation number of chlorine in ClO₃⁻ is:

A) +3
B) +7
C) +5
D) -1

21. The half-life of a second-order reaction depends on:

A) Temperature only
B) Initial concentration
C) Rate constant only
D) Catalyst

22. The compound with the lowest boiling point among the following is:

A) CH₃OH
B) C₂H₅OH
C) CH₄
D) H₂O

23. The shape of the PCl₅ molecule is:

A) Tetrahedral
B) Trigonal bipyramidal
C) Octahedral
D) Square pyramidal

24. The gas that behaves most like an ideal gas under standard conditions is:

A) He
B) CO₂
C) NH₃
D) SO₂

25. The coordination number of the central ion in [Fe(CN)₆]⁴⁻ is:

A) 4
B) 5
C) 6
D) 8

26. The IUPAC name of CH₃CH₂CH₂OH is:

A) Ethanol
B) Propan-1-ol
C) Butanol
D) Methanol

27. The reaction 2H₂ + O₂ → 2H₂O is an example of:

A) Combination
B) Decomposition
C) Displacement
D) Double displacement

28. The element with the highest first ionization energy is:

A) Lithium
B) Sodium
C) Helium
D) Neon

29. The rate constant of a second-order reaction has units:

A) s⁻¹
B) L mol⁻¹ s⁻¹
C) mol L⁻¹ s⁻¹
D) mol s⁻¹

30. The primary source of atmospheric oxygen is:

A) Photosynthesis
B) Volcanic activity
C) Ozone decomposition
D) Respiration

31. The functional group in ketones is:

A) -OH
B) -CHO
C) -CO-
D) -COOH

32. The catalyst used in the Haber process for ammonia production is:

A) Pt
B) Fe
C) Ni
D) V₂O₅

33. The pH of a 0.001 M solution of NaOH is:

A) 11
B) 3
C) 7
D) 14

34. The number of pi bonds in ethyne (C₂H₂) is:

A) 1
B) 3
C) 2
D) 4

35. The enzyme that joins DNA fragments during replication is:

A) Helicase
B) Ligase
C) Polymerase
D) Topoisomerase

36. The site of ATP synthesis in chloroplasts is:

A) Stroma
B) Thylakoid lumen
C) Thylakoid membrane
D) Outer membrane

37. The stage of mitosis where chromosomes align at the equatorial plate is:

A) Metaphase
B) Prophase
C) Anaphase
D) Telophase

38. The part of the neuron that transmits signals to other cells is:

A) Dendrite
B) Axon
C) Cell body
D) Synapse

39. The primary pigment involved in photosynthesis is:

A) Carotene
B) Xanthophyll
C) Chlorophyll a
D) Phycocyanin

40. The hormone that regulates blood sugar levels is:

A) Insulin
B) Adrenaline
C) Thyroxine
D) Oxytocin

41. The process of formation of sperm in animals is called:

A) Oogenesis
B) Spermatogenesis
C) Meiosis
D) Mitosis

42. The molecule that transfers amino acids to the ribosome during protein synthesis is:

A) mRNA
B) tRNA
C) rRNA
D) snRNA

43. The organelle responsible for photosynthesis is:

A) Chloroplast
B) Mitochondrion
C) Nucleus
D) Lysosome

44. The causative agent of malaria is:

A) Mycobacterium
B) Plasmodium
C) Salmonella
D) Vibrio cholerae

45. The deficiency of Vitamin C causes:

A) Rickets
B) Beriberi
C) Scurvy
D) Night blindness

46. The tissue responsible for water transport in plants is:

A) Xylem
B) Phloem
C) Parenchyma
D) Collenchyma

47. The process by which DNA is copied to produce mRNA is:

A) Translation
B) Transcription
C) Replication
D) Translocation

48. The number of ATP molecules produced per glucose molecule in glycolysis is:

A) 36–38
B) 10–12
C) 2
D) 20–22

49. The type of immunity provided by antibodies from another organism is:

A) Innate
B) Active acquired
C) Passive acquired
D) Natural

50. The structure in the human ear responsible for hearing is:

A) Cochlea
B) Semicircular canals
C) Tympanic membrane
D) Eustachian tube

General Knowledge and Analytical Reasoning (50 Questions)

51. The international organization responsible for maintaining global peace and security is:

A) Interpol
B) WHO
C) United Nations
D) NATO

52. The longest river in the world is:

A) Amazon
B) Nile
C) Yangtze
D) Mississippi

53. The term ‘corpus delicti’ in criminology refers to:

A) Body of the crime
B) Motive of the crime
C) Weapon used
D) Crime scene location

54. The chemical used in forensic science to detect latent fingerprints is:

A) Luminol
B) Silver nitrate
C) Ninhydrin
D) Phenolphthalein

55. The smallest country by land area is:

A) Monaco
B) Vatican City
C) Nauru
D) San Marino

56. The forensic technique used to analyze skeletal remains is called:

A) Forensic anthropology
B) Forensic entomology
C) Forensic odontology
D) Forensic toxicology

57. The currency of Japan is:

A) Yuan
B) Won
C) Yen
D) Ringgit

58. The term ‘algor mortis’ in forensic science refers to:

A) Blood pooling
B) Cooling of the body
C) Muscle stiffening
D) Tissue decomposition

59. The headquarters of the World Health Organization is in:

A) Geneva
B) New York
C) Paris
D) London

60. The forensic technique used to analyze bullet trajectories is called:

A) Serology
B) Odontology
C) Ballistics
D) Toxicology

61. The smallest unit of data storage in a computer is:

A) Pixel
B) Bit
C) Byte
D) Nibble

62. The term ‘locard’s exchange principle’ in forensic science states that:

A) Every contact leaves a trace
B) Evidence cannot be destroyed
C) DNA is unique to individuals
D) Time of death is precise

63. The largest ocean in the world is:

A) Atlantic
B) Indian
C) Pacific
D) Arctic

64. The forensic method used to analyze insect activity at a crime scene is called:

A) Serology
B) Forensic entomology
C) Forensic pathology
D) Forensic anthropology

65. The national flower of India is:

A) Lotus
B) Rose
C) Marigold
D) Jasmine

66. The term ‘post-mortem interval’ in forensic science refers to:

A) Muscle stiffening
B) Blood pooling
C) Time since death
D) Body cooling

67. The largest country by population is:

A) China
B) India
C) United States
D) Indonesia

68. The forensic technique used to analyze poisons in the body is called:

A) Toxicology
B) Ballistics
C) Serology
D) Odontology

69. The term ‘forensic’ originates from a Latin word meaning:

A) Crime
B) Evidence
C) Forum
D) Law

70. The forensic technique used to analyze tire marks is called:

A) Serology
B) Impression analysis
C) Ballistics
D) Toxicology

71. The current President of the United States (as of June 2025) is:

A) Joe Biden
B) Barack Obama
C) Donald Trump
D) Kamala Harris

72. The forensic method used to analyze blood spatter patterns is called:

A) Bloodstain pattern analysis
B) Serology
C) Ballistics
D) Toxicology

73. The chemical symbol for gold is:

A) Ag
B) Au
C) Fe
D) Cu

74. The term ‘forensic serology’ deals with:

A) Analysis of body fluids
B) Analysis of firearms
C) Determination of cause of death
D) Analysis of tool marks

75. The national animal of India is:

A) Lion
B) Elephant
C) Tiger
D) Leopard

76. If A is B’s father, B is C’s daughter, and D is C’s sister, then A is D’s:

A) Father
B) Brother
C) Son
D) Husband

77. Complete the series: 2, 6, 12, 20, 30, ?

A) 40
B) 42
C) 42
D) 48

78. If CAT = 24, what is the value of DOG?

A) 23
B) 41
C) 32
D) 50

79. If 3 : 9 :: 5 : ?

A) 25
B) 15
C) 18
D) 27

80. Which number does not belong: 9, 16, 25, 36, 49, 64, 80?

A) 9
B) 16
C) 80
D) 64

81. If tomorrow is Wednesday, today is:

A) Monday
B) Tuesday
C) Thursday
D) Friday

82. Find the missing term: 4, 16, 64, ?, 1024

A) 256
B) 128
C) 512
D) 192

83. If P is to Q as R is to S, then S is:

A) P’s partner
B) R’s partner
C) Q’s partner
D) None

84. Which letter comes next: A, D, I, I, ?

A) G
B) I
C) K
D) M

85. If 2 + 3 = 13, 4 + 5 = 41, then 6 + 7 = ?

A) 61
B) 85
C) 97
D) 109

86. If all cats are mammals and some mammals are black, then:

A) All cats are black
B) No cats are black
C) Some cats may be black
D) Some cats are not mammals

87. If 5 = 25, 6 = 36, 7 = 49, then 8 = ?

A) 64
B) 56
C) 48
D) 72

88. If the code for MOON is OQRS, what is the code for SUN?

A) UVW
B) TUV
C) VXY
D) WYZ

89. If X is faster than Y, and Y is faster than Z, then:

A) Z is the fastest
B) X is the fastest
C) Y is the fastest
D) All have equal speed

90. Find the odd one out: 2, 8, 32, 128, 500

A) 2
B) 8
C) 500
D) 128

91. If Monday is coded as 1, Tuesday as 2, then Sunday is:

A) 7
B) 6
C) 5
D) 8

92. If 4 * 2 = 12, 5 * 3 = 20, then 6 * 4 = ?

A) 24
B) 30
C) 28
D) 36

93. If all roses are flowers and some flowers are red, then:

A) All roses are red
B) No roses are red
C) Some roses may be red
D) Some roses are not flowers

94. Find the missing term: 5, 15, 30, 50, ?

A) 70
B) 75
C) 80
D) 85

95. If the code for LOVE is MPWJ, what is the code for HATE?

A) IBUF
B) JCWF
C) IBUG
D) JDWF

96. If P is heavier than Q, and Q is heavier than R, then:

A) R is the heaviest
B) P is the heaviest
C) Q is the heaviest
D) All have equal weight

97. Find the odd one out: 7, 14, 28, 56, 100

A) 7
B) 14
C) 100
D) 56

98. If 7 : 49 :: 9 : ?

A) 81
B) 63
C) 72
D) 90

99. If the day after tomorrow is Thursday, today is:

A) Wednesday
B) Tuesday
C) Monday
D) Friday

100. Complete the series: 3, 9, 27, 81, ?

A) 162
B) 216
C) 243
D) 324

Test Results

No comments:

Post a Comment

Courses We Offer

Advance Batch

₹6,100
  • Advanced Study Materials
  • Chapterwise Practice Sheets
  • Specialized Guest Lectures
  • Intensive Personal Mentoring
  • 3 Full-Length Mock Tests
Enroll Now
30% OFF

Crash Course

₹5,857 ₹4,100
🔥 Early Bird Offer! Limited Time Only
  • Fast-Track Study Materials
  • Chapterwise Practice Sheets
  • High-Yield Topics Coverage
  • 2 Full-Length Mock Tests
  • Personalized Mentoring
  • Exam Strategy Sessions
Have a coupon code?
Enroll at 30% OFF
Registration Open

Mock Test Series

₹3,500 ₹1,999
🔥 Last Batch Offer! Limited Time Only
⚠️ Limited Seats Only
  • Latest Exam Pattern
  • Separate UG & PG Tests
  • Expert-Designed Questions
  • All India Ranking
  • Time Management Practice
Enroll Now

Foundation Batch

₹11,100
  • Comprehensive Study Materials
  • Weekly Interactive Classes
  • Personalized Mentoring
  • 3 Full-Length Mock Tests
  • Free Access to Club Events
  • Regular Doubt Sessions
  • Guest Expert Lectures
Maximum seat limit reached. Registration Closed