NFAT Entrance Exam Mock Test for M.Sc. Forensic Science 2025
Physics (25 Questions)
1. A particle moves with a constant acceleration of 4 m/s² for 10 s, starting from rest. The distance covered is:
2. A sound wave has a wavelength of 2 m and a speed of 340 m/s. Its frequency is:
3. A convex mirror has a focal length of 25 cm. An object is placed 50 cm from the mirror. The image distance is:
4. The resistivity of a material is 2 × 10⁻⁸ Ω·m. The resistance of a wire of length 1 m and cross-sectional area 2 mm² is:
5. A stone is dropped from a height of 19.6 m (g = 9.8 m/s²). The time taken to reach the ground is:
6. The work done in compressing a spring with spring constant 200 N/m by 0.1 m is:
7. A concave lens forms a virtual image half the size of the object. If the object distance is 20 cm, the focal length is:
8. A radioactive isotope has a half-life of 8 days. The fraction of the sample remaining after 24 days is:
9. The electric potential at a point 0.2 m from a point charge of 5 µC is:
10. The torque on a body with moment of inertia 3 kg·m² and angular acceleration 2 rad/s² is:
11. The refractive index of a medium is 1.5. The critical angle relative to air is:
12. The power dissipated in a 20 Ω resistor with a voltage of 40 V across it is:
13. The time period of a satellite orbiting at a height equal to Earth's radius (g = 9.8 m/s², R = 6400 km) is:
14. The work done in moving a 5 µC charge across a potential difference of 100 V is:
15. The de Broglie wavelength of a proton accelerated through 200 V (h = 6.626 × 10⁻³⁴ J·s, m = 1.67 × 10⁻²⁷ kg) is approximately:
16. The speed of sound in air at 20°C is approximately:
17. The volume of an ideal gas is doubled at constant pressure and temperature. The new pressure is:
18. The power of a lens with a focal length of 0.25 m is:
19. The magnetic field at a distance of 0.05 m from a straight wire carrying 10 A is:
20. The potential energy of a 1 kg object at a height of 10 m (g = 9.8 m/s²) is:
21. The efficiency of a Carnot engine operating between 500 K and 300 K is:
22. The wavelength of light emitted by an electron transitioning from n=4 to n=2 in a hydrogen atom is approximately (R = 1.097 × 10⁷ m⁻¹):
23. The force on a charge of 2 µC in an electric field of 5 × 10³ N/C is:
24. The moment of inertia of a solid sphere of mass M and radius R about its diameter is:
25. The unit of surface tension is:
Chemistry (25 Questions)
26. The hybridization of the central atom in SF₆ is:
27. The standard enthalpy of formation of CO₂(g) is -393.5 kJ/mol. The enthalpy change for the formation of 2 moles of CO₂(g) is:
28. The pH of a 0.001 M NaOH solution is:
29. The bond order of N₂ is:
30. The rate constant of a second-order reaction is 0.05 L/mol·s. The half-life for a 0.2 M solution is:
31. The oxidation number of phosphorus in H₃PO₄ is:
32. The IUPAC name of CH₃COCH₃ is:
33. The coordination number of the central ion in [Ni(CN)₄]²⁻ is:
34. The number of moles of HCl required to neutralize 0.2 mol of Na₂CO₃ is:
35. The shape of the PCl₃ molecule according to VSEPR theory is:
36. A reaction has a positive entropy change and a negative enthalpy change. The reaction is:
37. The molar conductivity of a 0.02 M KCl solution is 150 S cm² mol⁻¹. The conductivity is:
38. The functional group in CH₃COOH is:
39. The order of a reaction with rate law rate = k[A][B] is:
40. The magnetic moment of [Fe(H₂O)₆]²⁺ is (Fe atomic number = 26):
41. The solubility product of BaSO₄ is 1.1 × 10⁻¹⁰. The solubility in water is:
42. The catalyst used in the Haber process for ammonia production is:
43. The degree of dissociation of a 0.01 M weak acid with Ka = 1 × 10⁻⁶ is:
44. The number of sigma and pi bonds in ethyne (C₂H₂) is:
45. The standard electrode potential of Zn²⁺/Zn is -0.76 V, and that of Cu²⁺/Cu is +0.34 V. The cell potential of the Zn-Cu cell is:
46. The major product of the reaction of propene with HBr in the presence of peroxides is:
47. The crystal field splitting energy (Δ₀) for [Fe(CN)₆]⁴⁻ is higher than that for:
48. The van’t Hoff factor for a 0.1 M solution of Na₃PO₄ is:
49. The primary product of the ozonolysis of propene followed by reductive hydrolysis is:
50. The equilibrium constant for the reaction 2SO₂(g) + O₂(g) ⇌ 2SO₃(g) is 100 at 900 K. The equilibrium constant for 2SO₃(g) ⇌ 2SO₂(g) + O₂(g) is:
Biology (25 Questions)
51. The number of ATP molecules produced per glucose molecule during glycolysis is:
52. The anticodon for the codon UUU on mRNA is:
53. The Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium assumes no:
54. The site of ATP synthesis in a cell is:
55. The restriction enzyme BamHI cuts DNA at the sequence:
56. The secondary source of genetic variation in a population is:
57. The hormone responsible for regulating blood glucose levels is:
58. The process of mRNA synthesis is called:
59. The number of chromosomes in a human gamete is:
60. The enzyme that catalyzes the conversion of pyruvate to acetyl-CoA is:
61. The CAM pathway in plants is an adaptation to:
62. The neurotransmitter responsible for excitatory synaptic transmission is:
63. The primary site of water reabsorption in the nephron is:
64. The genetic disorder caused by an extra X chromosome in males is:
65. The process by which bacteria transfer DNA via a virus is:
66. The accessory pigment that enhances light absorption in photosynthesis is:
67. The term ‘metabolism’ refers to:
68. The enzyme responsible for joining DNA fragments during replication is:
69. The organelle responsible for protein modification and packaging is:
70. The technique used to determine the sequence of DNA is:
71. The hormone that regulates water reabsorption in the kidneys is:
72. The stage of meiosis where homologous chromosomes align at the equator is:
73. The molecule that forms the backbone of the ribosome is:
74. The primary function of mitochondria is:
75. The term ‘necrosis’ refers to:
Basics of Forensic Science (25 Questions)
76. The technique used to amplify DNA in forensic analysis is:
77. The secondary classification of fingerprints includes:
78. The advantage of nuclear DNA in forensic analysis is its:
79. The presumptive test for blood at a crime scene is:
80. The technique used to analyze drug residues is:
81. The point of convergence in bloodstain pattern analysis indicates:
82. The primary method for analyzing trace evidence is:
83. The time since death can be estimated by measuring:
84. The technique used to analyze glass fragments in forensic investigations is:
85. The primary role of a forensic pathologist is to:
86. The technique used to detect latent fingerprints on paper is:
87. The primary source of error in fingerprint analysis is:
88. The technique used to analyze soil samples is:
89. The primary role of a forensic entomologist is to:
90. The primary method for analyzing the chemical composition of drugs is:
91. The primary purpose of documenting a crime scene is to:
92. The technique used to analyze hair samples is:
93. The primary method for estimating the time since death using body cooling is:
94. The primary source of nuclear DNA in forensic analysis is:
95. The technique used to analyze tool marks is:
96. The primary method for detecting latent fingerprints on porous surfaces is:
97. The primary purpose of forensic serology is to:
98. The primary method for analyzing the chemical composition of gunshot residue is:
99. The primary role of a forensic toxicologist is to:
100. The primary method for determining the presence of semen at a crime scene is:
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