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B.Sc. Criminology and Forensic Science - NFAT Mock Test

NFAT Entrance Exam Mock Test for B.Sc. Criminology and Forensic Science 2025 (High Difficulty)

Physics, Chemistry, and Biology (10+2 Level) (50 Questions)

1. A particle moves in a circular path with constant speed. The acceleration of the particle is:

A) Zero
B) Directed outward
C) Directed toward the center
D) Tangential to the path

2. The dimensional formula for Planck’s constant is:

A) [MLT⁻¹]
B) [ML²T⁻¹]
C) [ML²T⁻²]
D) [MLT⁻²]

3. A body is projected at an angle of 45° with a velocity of 20 m/s. The maximum height reached is (g = 10 m/s²):

A) 10 m
B) 20 m
C) 15 m
D) 5 m

4. The critical angle for a medium is 45°. The refractive index of the medium is:

A) 1
B) √2
C) 1/√2
D) 2

5. In a series LCR circuit at resonance, the phase difference between voltage and current is:

A) 90°
B) 0°
C) 180°
D) 45°

6. The de Broglie wavelength of a particle with momentum p is given by:

A) h/p
B) p/h
C) h²/p
D) p²/h

7. The half-life of a radioactive substance is 10 days. The fraction of the substance remaining after 20 days is:

A) 1/2
B) 1/3
C) 1/4
D) 1/8

8. The electric field inside a charged spherical conductor is:

A) Non-zero and uniform
B) Zero
C) Non-zero and non-uniform
D) Infinite

9. The moment of inertia of a thin rod of mass M and length L about an axis perpendicular to its length and passing through its center is:

A) ML²/12
B) ML²/6
C) ML²/3
D) ML²/4

10. The Doppler effect for sound waves is observed due to:

A) Change in medium density
B) Change in wavelength only
C) Relative motion between source and observer
D) Change in amplitude

11. The energy of a photon with frequency f is given by:

A) hf²
B) hf
C) h/f
D) h²f

12. The coefficient of restitution for a perfectly elastic collision is:

A) 1
B) 0
C) 0.5
D) 2

13. The fringe width in Young’s double-slit experiment is proportional to:

A) Slit separation
B) Screen distance
C) Wavelength
D) Intensity of light

14. The magnetic field at the center of a circular loop carrying current I is given by:

A) μ₀I/4πr
B) μ₀I/2r
C) μ₀I/r
D) μ₀I/4r

15. The time period of a simple pendulum on a planet where g is 4 times that of Earth is:

A) Half of Earth’s
B) Equal to Earth’s
C) Twice Earth’s
D) Four times Earth’s

16. The escape velocity from the surface of a planet with radius R and mass M is proportional to:

A) √(M/R²)
B) √(R/M)
C) √(M/R)
D) M/R

17. The SI unit of magnetic flux is:

A) Tesla
B) Weber
C) Ampere
D) Henry

18. The hybridization of carbon in acetylene (C₂H₂) is:

A) sp³
B) sp²
C) sp
D) dsp²

19. The standard enthalpy change for the formation of one mole of a compound from its elements is called:

A) Enthalpy of combustion
B) Enthalpy of formation
C) Enthalpy of neutralization
D) Enthalpy of sublimation

20. The oxidation number of sulfur in H₂SO₄ is:

A) +6
B) +4
C) +2
D) -2

21. The order of a reaction can be determined by:

A) Temperature only
B) Catalyst used
C) Rate law expression
D) Equilibrium constant

22. The compound with the highest boiling point among the following is:

A) CH₄
B) H₂O
C) NH₃
D) HF

23. The shape of the SF₆ molecule is:

A) Octahedral
B) Tetrahedral
C) Trigonal bipyramidal
D) Square planar

24. The gas that deviates most from ideal behavior under high pressure and low temperature is:

A) He
B) N₂
C) CO₂
D) Ne

25. The coordination number of the central ion in [Co(NH₃)₆]³⁺ is:

A) 4
B) 6
C) 8
D) 12

26. The IUPAC name of CH₃CH₂COOH is:

A) Propanoic acid
B) Ethanoic acid
C) Butanoic acid
D) Methanoic acid

27. The reaction CH₃OH + CO → CH₃COOH is an example of:

A) Oxidation
B) Reduction
C) Carbonylation
D) Esterification

28. The element with the highest electronegativity is:

A) Chlorine
B) Fluorine
C) Oxygen
D) Nitrogen

29. The rate constant of a first-order reaction has the same units as:

A) s⁻¹
B) mol L⁻¹ s⁻¹
C) L mol⁻¹ s⁻¹
D) mol s⁻¹

30. The primary source of energy in Earth’s climate system is:

A) Geothermal energy
B) Tidal energy
C) Solar radiation
D) Nuclear energy

31. The functional group in aldehydes is:

A) -OH
B) -CHO
C) -COOH
D) -NH₂

32. The catalyst used in the contact process for sulfuric acid production is:

A) V₂O₅
B) Fe
C) Pt
D) Ni

33. The pH of a 0.01 M solution of HCl is:

A) 1
B) 3
C) 2
D) 4

34. The number of sigma bonds in benzene (C₆H₆) is:

A) 6
B) 12
C) 9
D) 15

35. The enzyme responsible for unwinding DNA during replication is:

A) DNA polymerase
B) Ligase
C) Helicase
D) Primase

36. The site of protein synthesis in a cell is:

A) Ribosome
B) Nucleus
C) Mitochondrion
D) Golgi apparatus

37. The stage of meiosis where crossing over occurs is:

A) Metaphase I
B) Prophase I
C) Anaphase I
D) Telophase I

38. The part of the neuron that receives signals is:

A) Axon
B) Cell body
C) Dendrite
D) Myelin sheath

39. The primary source of energy for Earth’s ecosystems is:

A) Sunlight
B) Glucose
C) ATP
D) Oxygen

40. The hormone responsible for the fight-or-flight response is:

A) Insulin
B) Adrenaline
C) Thyroxine
D) Cortisol

41. The process of formation of gametes in animals is called:

A) Mitosis
B) Binary fission
C) Gametogenesis
D) Sporogenesis

42. The molecule that carries the genetic code from DNA to the ribosome is:

A) mRNA
B) tRNA
C) rRNA
D) snRNA

43. The organelle responsible for cellular respiration is:

A) Nucleus
B) Mitochondrion
C) Chloroplast
D) Lysosome

44. The causative agent of tuberculosis is:

A) Plasmodium
B) Salmonella
C) Mycobacterium
D) Vibrio cholerae

45. The deficiency of Vitamin D causes:

A) Rickets
B) Scurvy
C) Beriberi
D) Night blindness

46. The tissue responsible for transport of nutrients in plants is:

A) Xylem
B) Phloem
C) Collenchyma
D) Sclerenchyma

47. The process by which mRNA is decoded to produce a protein is:

A) Replication
B) Transcription
C) Translation
D) Translocation

48. The number of ATP molecules produced per glucose molecule in aerobic respiration is:

A) 36–38
B) 2–4
C) 10–12
D) 20–22

49. The type of immunity provided by vaccination is:

A) Innate
B) Active acquired
C) Passive acquired
D) Natural

50. The structure in the human ear responsible for balance is:

A) Cochlea
B) Tympanic membrane
C) Semicircular canals
D) Auditory nerve

General Knowledge and Analytical Reasoning (50 Questions)

51. The International Criminal Police Organization is commonly known as:

A) FBI
B) Interpol
C) CIA
D) MI6

52. The deepest point in the Earth’s oceans is:

A) Mariana Trench
B) Tonga Trench
C) Puerto Rico Trench
D) Java Trench

53. The term ‘modus operandi’ in criminology refers to:

A) Motive of the crime
B) Weapon used
C) Method of operation
D) Crime scene location

54. The chemical used in luminol tests for detecting blood at crime scenes is:

A) Phenolphthalein
B) Luminol
C) Iodine
D) Silver nitrate

55. The highest peak in the world is:

A) Mount Everest
B) K2
C) Kangchenjunga
D) Lhotse

56. The forensic technique used to analyze bite marks is called:

A) Serology
B) Ballistics
C) Odontology
D) Toxicology

57. The currency of Brazil is:

A) Peso
B) Real
C) Dollar
D) Euro

58. The term ‘rigor mortis’ in forensic science refers to:

A) Stiffening of muscles after death
B) Decomposition of tissues
C) Blood pooling
D) Cooling of the body

59. The headquarters of the International Court of Justice is in:

A) New York
B) Geneva
C) The Hague
D) Paris

60. The forensic technique used to identify individuals based on their DNA is called:

A) Serology
B) DNA profiling
C) Trace evidence analysis
D) Ballistics

61. The smallest unit of digital evidence in forensic science is:

A) Bit
B) Byte
C) Pixel
D) File

62. The term ‘chain of custody’ in forensic science refers to:

A) Sequence of DNA samples
B) Order of crime scene investigation
C) Documentation of evidence handling
D) Hierarchy of forensic experts

63. The largest desert in the world is:

A) Sahara
B) Antarctica
C) Gobi
D) Kalahari

64. The forensic method used to analyze handwriting is called:

A) Graphology
B) Serology
C) Odontology
D) Entomology

65. The national bird of India is:

A) Sparrow
B) Pigeon
C) Peacock
D) Parrot

66. The term ‘livor mortis’ in forensic science refers to:

A) Muscle stiffening
B) Blood pooling after death
C) Body cooling
D) Tissue decomposition

67. The largest continent by area is:

A) Asia
B) Africa
C) Australia
D) Antarctica

68. The forensic technique used to analyze tool marks is called:

A) Serology
B) Ballistics
C) Tool mark analysis
D) Toxicology

69. The term ‘forensic’ is derived from the Latin word meaning:

A) Crime
B) Forum
C) Evidence
D) Justice

70. The forensic technique used to analyze shoe prints is called:

A) Impression analysis
B) Trace analysis
C) Serology
D) Ballistics

71. The current Secretary-General of the United Nations (as of June 2025) is:

A) Ban Ki-moon
B) Kofi Annan
C) António Guterres
D) Boutros Boutros-Ghali

72. The forensic method used to determine time of death based on body temperature is called:

A) Rigor mortis
B) Algor mortis
C) Livor mortis
D) Post-mortem interval

73. The chemical symbol for silver is:

A) Ag
B) Au
C) Fe
D) Cu

74. The term ‘forensic pathology’ deals with:

A) Analysis of fingerprints
B) Analysis of firearms
C) Determination of cause of death
D) Analysis of trace evidence

75. The national anthem of India is:

A) Vande Mataram
B) Jana Gana Mana
C) Saare Jahan Se Achha
D) Raghupati Raghav

76. If P is Q’s brother, Q is R’s sister, and S is R’s mother, then S is P’s:

A) Sister
B) Daughter
C) Mother
D) Wife

77. Complete the series: 5, 10, 20, 35, 55, ?

A) 70
B) 80
C) 90
D) 100

78. If APPLE = 50, what is the value of BANANA?

A) 48
B) 50
C) 52
D) 54

79. If 4 : 16 :: 6 : ?

A) 24
B) 30
C) 36
D) 42

80. Which number does not belong: 8, 27, 64, 125, 216, 343, 400?

A) 8
B) 400
C) 125
D) 216

81. If the day after tomorrow is Friday, today is:

A) Wednesday
B) Tuesday
C) Thursday
D) Monday

82. Find the missing term: 3, 9, 27, ?, 243

A) 54
B) 81
C) 108
D) 162

83. If A is to B as C is to D, then D is:

A) A’s partner
B) B’s partner
C) C’s partner
D) None

84. Which letter comes next: B, E, I, K, ?

A) I
B) J
C) K
D) L

85. If 3 + 4 = 25, 5 + 6 = 61, then 7 + 8 = ?

A) 81
B) 113
C) 121
D) 169

86. If all dogs are mammals and some mammals are white, then:

A) All dogs are white
B) No dogs are white
C) Some dogs may be white
D) Some dogs are not mammals

87. If 2 = 4, 3 = 9, 4 = 16, then 6 = ?

A) 36
B) 24
C) 18
D) 12

88. If the code for KING is LJOH, what is the code for QUEEN?

A) RVFFO
B) RVFPO
C) SWFPO
D) RVEPN

89. If X is taller than Y, and Y is taller than Z, then:

A) Z is the tallest
B) Y is the tallest
C) X is the tallest
D) All are of equal height

90. Find the odd one out: 4, 16, 64, 256, 1000

A) 1000
B) 256
C) 64
D) 16

91. If Wednesday is coded as 3, Thursday as 4, then Monday is:

A) 1
B) 2
C) 5
D) 7

92. If 5 * 3 = 24, 6 * 4 = 32, then 7 * 5 = ?

A) 35
B) 40
C) 42
D) 48

93. If all birds are animals and some animals are blue, then:

A) Some birds may be blue
B) All birds are blue
C) No birds are blue
D) Some birds are not animals

94. Find the missing term: 2, 8, 18, 32, ?

A) 48
B) 50
C) 54
D) 60

95. If the code for STAR is TUBS, what is the code for MOON?

A) NPPO
B) OQQP
C) NQQP
D) NPRQ

96. If M is older than N, and N is older than O, then:

A) M is the oldest
B) N is the oldest
C) O is the oldest
D) All are of equal age

97. Find the odd one out: 5, 10, 20, 35, 50

A) 5
B) 50
C) 20
D) 35

98. If 8 : 64 :: 5 : ?

A) 25
B) 30
C) 125
D) 100

99. If the day before yesterday was Tuesday, today is:

A) Thursday
B) Wednesday
C) Friday
D) Monday

100. Complete the series: 4, 12, 36, 108, ?

A) 216
B) 324
C) 432
D) 648

Test Results

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