NFAT Entrance Exam Mock Test for M.Sc. Forensic Science 2025
Physics (25 Questions)
1. A particle undergoes simple harmonic motion with an amplitude of 0.1 m and a period of 2 s. The maximum velocity of the particle is:
2. The potential difference across a parallel plate capacitor with a plate separation of 2 mm and capacitance of 5 µF is 100 V. The charge stored is:
3. A sound wave in air at 20°C has a frequency of 340 Hz and a wavelength of 1 m. The speed of sound is:
4. A lens has a power of +4 D. Its focal length is:
5. A body of mass 5 kg is lifted vertically through a height of 10 m. The work done against gravity (g = 9.8 m/s²) is:
6. The magnetic flux through a coil of 100 turns changes from 0.02 Wb to 0.08 Wb in 0.1 s. The induced emf is:
7. A radioactive sample has a half-life of 10 hours. The fraction of the sample remaining after 30 hours is:
8. The resolving power of a microscope is proportional to:
9. A particle of charge 2 µC is placed in an electric field of 500 N/C. The force experienced by the particle is:
10. The moment of inertia of a solid sphere of mass M and radius R about its diameter is:
11. The critical angle for a medium with refractive index 1.5 relative to air is:
12. A body of mass 3 kg moves with a velocity of 4 m/s. Its kinetic energy is:
13. The magnetic field at a distance of 0.2 m from a straight conductor carrying a current of 5 A is:
14. The efficiency of a Carnot engine operating between 500 K and 300 K is:
15. The de Broglie wavelength of a proton accelerated through a potential difference of 200 V is approximately (h = 6.626 × 10⁻³⁴ J·s, m = 1.67 × 10⁻²⁷ kg):
16. A convex mirror has a focal length of 15 cm. If an object is placed 30 cm from the mirror, the image distance is:
17. The energy stored in a capacitor of capacitance 20 µF charged to 200 V is:
18. The angular velocity of a rotating disc increases from 2 rad/s to 10 rad/s in 4 s. The angular acceleration is:
19. The surface tension of a liquid is 0.07 N/m. The work done to form a soap bubble of radius 0.05 m is:
20. The torque required to keep a body rotating at constant angular velocity is:
21. The Doppler shift in frequency for a source moving towards a stationary observer at 20 m/s (speed of sound = 340 m/s, source frequency = 500 Hz) is:
22. The impedance of a series LCR circuit is minimum when:
23. The time period of a satellite in a circular orbit at a height of 400 km above Earth’s surface (R_E = 6400 km, g = 9.8 m/s²) is approximately:
24. The energy of a photon with a frequency of 5 × 10¹⁴ Hz (h = 6.626 × 10⁻³⁴ J·s) is:
25. The Reynolds number for a fluid flow in a pipe is 2500. The flow is:
Chemistry (25 Questions)
26. The hybridization of the central atom in SF₆ is:
27. The enthalpy change for the combustion of methane is -890 kJ/mol. The enthalpy of formation of CO₂(g) is -393.5 kJ/mol and H₂O(l) is -286 kJ/mol. The enthalpy of formation of CH₄(g) is:
28. The pH of a 0.001 M solution of NaOH is:
29. The bond order of N₂⁺ is:
30. The rate constant of a second-order reaction is 0.05 L/mol·s. If the initial concentration of the reactant is 0.2 M, the half-life is:
31. The oxidation number of phosphorus in H₃PO₄ is:
32. The IUPAC name of (CH₃)₂CHCHO is:
33. The coordination number of the central ion in [Fe(CN)₆]⁴⁻ is:
34. The number of moles of HCl required to neutralize 0.2 mol of Ca(OH)₂ is:
35. The shape of the IF₇ molecule according to VSEPR theory is:
36. The entropy change for a process is positive, and the enthalpy change is negative. The process is:
37. The molar conductivity of a 0.02 M solution of KCl is 150 S cm² mol⁻¹. The conductivity of the solution is:
38. The functional group in CH₃COOH is:
39. The order of a reaction with rate law rate = k[A][B]² is:
40. The magnetic moment of [Co(NH₃)₆]³⁺ is (Co atomic number = 27):
41. The solubility product of BaSO₄ is 1.1 × 10⁻¹⁰. The solubility of BaSO₄ in water is:
42. The catalyst used in the Haber process for ammonia synthesis is:
43. The degree of dissociation of a 0.01 M weak acid with Ka = 1 × 10⁻⁶ is:
44. The number of sigma and pi bonds in acetylene (C₂H₂) is:
45. The standard electrode potential of Ag⁺/Ag is +0.80 V, and that of Zn²⁺/Zn is -0.76 V. The cell potential of the Zn-Ag cell is:
46. The major product of the reaction of propene with HBr in the presence of peroxide is:
47. The crystal field splitting energy (Δ₀) for [Fe(H₂O)₆]²⁺ is lower than that for:
48. The van’t Hoff factor for a 0.1 M solution of Na₃PO₄ is:
49. The primary product of the ozonolysis of 1-butene followed by reductive hydrolysis is:
50. The equilibrium constant for the reaction 2SO₂(g) + O₂(g) ⇌ 2SO₃(g) is 16 at 400 K. The equilibrium constant for 2SO₃(g) ⇌ 2SO₂(g) + O₂(g) is:
Biology (25 Questions)
51. The number of ATP molecules produced per glucose molecule during glycolysis is:
52. The anticodon for the codon UUU on mRNA is:
53. The Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium assumes:
54. The site of ATP synthesis in mitochondria is:
55. The restriction enzyme BamHI cuts DNA at the sequence:
56. The primary source of genetic variation in sexually reproducing organisms is:
57. The hormone responsible for regulating blood glucose levels is:
58. The process of protein synthesis from mRNA is called:
59. The number of chromosomes in a human gamete is:
60. The enzyme that catalyzes the conversion of glucose-6-phosphate to fructose-6-phosphate in glycolysis is:
61. The CAM pathway in plants is an adaptation to:
62. The neurotransmitter responsible for excitatory synaptic transmission is:
63. The primary site of water reabsorption in the nephron is:
64. The genetic disorder caused by a missing X chromosome is:
65. The process by which bacteria exchange genetic material through a pilus is:
66. The accessory pigment that enhances light absorption in photosynthesis is:
67. The term ‘osmoregulation’ refers to:
68. The enzyme responsible for joining Okazaki fragments during DNA replication is:
69. The organelle responsible for cellular respiration is:
70. The technique used to separate DNA fragments based on size is:
71. The hormone that regulates water reabsorption in the kidneys is:
72. The stage of meiosis where homologous chromosomes separate is:
73. The molecule that provides energy for protein synthesis is:
74. The primary function of the Golgi apparatus is:
75. The term ‘necrosis’ refers to:
Basics of Forensic Science (25 Questions)
76. The technique used to amplify specific DNA sequences in forensic analysis is:
77. The primary classification of fingerprints includes:
78. The advantage of using mitochondrial DNA in forensic analysis is:
79. The presumptive test for blood at a crime scene is:
80. The technique used to identify the elemental composition of gunshot residue is:
81. The angle of impact of a bloodstain is determined by:
82. The primary method for analyzing drug residues in forensic toxicology is:
83. The time since death can be estimated by measuring:
84. The technique used to compare hair samples in forensic investigations is:
85. The primary purpose of a forensic toxicologist is to:
86. The technique used to detect latent fingerprints on paper is:
87. The primary source of error in fingerprint analysis is:
88. The technique used to analyze the composition of glass fragments is:
89. The primary role of a forensic entomologist is to:
90. The primary method for analyzing the chemical composition of drugs is:
91. The primary purpose of documenting the chain of custody is to:
92. The technique used to analyze the composition of soil samples is:
93. The primary method for estimating the age of skeletal remains is:
94. The primary source of nuclear DNA in forensic analysis is:
95. The technique used to analyze tool marks on a surface is:
96. The primary method for detecting latent fingerprints on glass is:
97. The primary purpose of forensic pathology is to:
98. The primary method for analyzing the chemical composition of fibers is:
99. The primary purpose of forensic odontology is to:
100. The primary method for determining the presence of semen at a crime scene is:
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