NFAT M.Sc. Forensic Science Mock Test 2025

Physics (25 Questions)

1. A charge \( Q = +2 \, \mu \text{C} \) is placed at the origin, and another charge \( -3 \, \mu \text{C} \) is at \( (0.3 \, \text{m}, 0, 0) \). What is the electric field at \( (0, 0.4 \, \text{m}, 0) \)?

A) \( 3.6 \times 10^4 \, \text{N/C} \, \hat{j} \)

B) \( 1.8 \times 10^4 \, \text{N/C} \, \hat{j} \)

C) \( 5.4 \times 10^4 \, \text{N/C} \, \hat{i} \)

D) Zero

2. In a single-slit diffraction experiment, the slit width is 0.2 mm, and the screen is 2 m away. If the wavelength is 500 nm, what is the width of the central maximum?

A) 5 mm

B) 10 mm

C) 20 mm

D) 2.5 mm

3. A Carnot engine operates between 800 K and 400 K with 200 J of heat absorbed. What is the efficiency?

A) 0.25

B) 0.5

C) 0.75

D) 1.0

4. A particle of mass 1 kg moves under a force \( \vec{F} = (4t \hat{i} + 2 \hat{j}) \, \text{N} \). If it starts from rest, what is its displacement at \( t = 3 \, \text{s} \)?

A) \( (18 \hat{i} + 9 \hat{j}) \, \text{m} \)

B) \( (9 \hat{i} + 4.5 \hat{j}) \, \text{m} \)

C) \( (12 \hat{i} + 6 \hat{j}) \, \text{m} \)

D) \( (6 \hat{i} + 3 \hat{j}) \, \text{m} \)

5. Two planets orbit a star at the same radius with masses \( 2m \) and \( m \). What is the ratio of their orbital periods?

A) 2:1

B) 1:1

C) 1:2

D) \( \sqrt{2}:1 \)

6. A concave lens (focal length 15 cm) is placed 10 cm from an object. Where is the image formed?

A) 6 cm from the lens

B) 30 cm from the lens

C) 6 cm from the lens (virtual)

D) 15 cm from the lens

7. A solenoid (500 turns, 25 cm length) carries 3 A. What is the magnetic field at its center?

A) \( 7.54 \times 10^{-3} \, \text{T} \)

B) \( 3.77 \times 10^{-3} \, \text{T} \)

C) \( 1.88 \times 10^{-3} \, \text{T} \)

D) \( 15.08 \times 10^{-3} \, \text{T} \)

8. The de Broglie wavelength of a proton accelerated through 200 V is approximately:

A) 0.02 nm

B) 0.002 nm

C) 0.2 nm

D) 2 nm

9. A wheel (radius 0.4 m) has an angular acceleration of \( 3 \, \text{rad/s}^2 \). What is the linear acceleration at the rim after 2 s from rest?

A) 1.2 m/s\(^2\)

B) 2.4 m/s\(^2\)

C) 0.6 m/s\(^2\)

D) 4.8 m/s\(^2\)

10. A sound wave (frequency 1000 Hz, speed 340 m/s) has a phase difference of \( \pi/3 \) between two points. What is the distance between them?

A) 0.34 m

B) 0.113 m

C) 0.226 m

D) 0.056 m

11. An LC circuit has a 20 µF capacitor and a 0.05 H inductor. What is the oscillation frequency?

A) 112.5 Hz

B) 225 Hz

C) 56.25 Hz

D) 450 Hz

12. A projectile is launched at 45° with a speed of 30 m/s. What is its range (g = 9.8 m/s\(^2\))?

A) 91.8 m

B) 45.9 m

C) 183.6 m

D) 22.95 m

13. A photon has a wavelength of 500 nm. What is its energy?

A) 2.48 eV

B) 1.24 eV

C) 3.72 eV

D) 4.96 eV

14. In an isothermal process, a gas expands from 1 L to 2 L at 300 K. If initial pressure is 2 atm, what is the final pressure?

A) 4 atm

B) 1 atm

C) 2 atm

D) 0.5 atm

15. A charged particle (\( q = 3 \, \mu \text{C} \)) moves with velocity \( \vec{v} = (4 \hat{i} - 2 \hat{j}) \, \text{m/s} \) in a magnetic field \( \vec{B} = 0.2 \hat{k} \, \text{T} \). What is the magnetic force?

A) \( (1.2 \hat{i} + 2.4 \hat{j}) \times 10^{-6} \, \text{N} \)

B) \( (-1.2 \hat{i} - 2.4 \hat{j}) \times 10^{-6} \, \text{N} \)

C) \( (2.4 \hat{i} + 1.2 \hat{j}) \times 10^{-6} \, \text{N} \)

D) Zero

16. A lens has a power of -4 D. What is its focal length?

A) -25 cm

B) 25 cm

C) -50 cm

D) 50 cm

17. A pendulum (length 0.5 m) oscillates on Earth. What is its time period (g = 9.8 m/s\(^2\))?

A) 1.42 s

B) 1.42 s

C) 2.84 s

D) 0.71 s

18. A transformer has 100 primary and 400 secondary turns. If the output voltage is 240 V, what is the input voltage?

A) 60 V

B) 120 V

C) 480 V

D) 960 V

19. In a diffraction grating experiment, if the number of slits per mm doubles, the angular separation of maxima:

A) Doubles

B) Halves

C) Remains same

D) Quadruples

20. A body of mass 2 kg falls from 10 m. What is its potential energy at the top (g = 9.8 m/s\(^2\))?

A) 196 J

B) 98 J

C) 392 J

D) 49 J

21. The half-life of a radioactive isotope is 3 hours. What fraction remains after 9 hours?

A) 1/8

B) 1/4

C) 1/2

D) 1/16

22. A wire of resistance 5 Ω is stretched to triple its length. What is the new resistance?

A) 45 Ω

B) 15 Ω

C) 10 Ω

D) 1.67 Ω

23. A particle in SHM has an amplitude of 10 cm and a period of 0.5 s. What is its maximum acceleration?

A) 1.58 m/s\(^2\)

B) 15.8 m/s\(^2\)

C) 7.9 m/s\(^2\)

D) 31.6 m/s\(^2\)

24. A concave mirror has a focal length of 20 cm. An object is placed 30 cm from the mirror. Where is the image?

A) 60 cm in front of the mirror

B) 12 cm in front of the mirror

C) 60 cm behind the mirror

D) 12 cm behind the mirror

25. A rocket ejects gas at 1000 m/s with a mass ejection rate of 5 kg/s. What is the thrust?

A) 5000 N

B) 2500 N

C) 10000 N

D) 1250 N

Chemistry (25 Questions)

26. A cell with \( \text{Mg}|\text{Mg}^{2+} (0.05 \, \text{M}) || \text{Ag}^{+} (0.1 \, \text{M})|\text{Ag} \), \( E^\circ_{\text{cell}} = 3.17 \, \text{V} \). What is the cell potential at 298 K?

A) 3.14 V

B) 3.20 V

C) 3.11 V

D) 3.23 V

27. A first-order reaction has a rate constant of 0.01 s\(^{-1}\). If the initial concentration is 0.2 M, what is the concentration after 100 s?

A) 0.073 M

B) 0.027 M

C) 0.1 M

D) 0.05 M

28. The major product of propene with HBr (no peroxides) is:

A) 2-Bromopropane

B) 1-Bromopropane

C) 1,2-Dibromopropane

D) 2,2-Dibromopropane

29. Which ligand causes the largest crystal field splitting?

A) CN\(^-\)

B) F\(^-\)

C) Cl\(^-\)

D) H\( _2 \)O

30. For gas adsorption following Langmuir’s isotherm (\( K = 0.4 \, \text{atm}^{-1} \)), what is the surface coverage at 0.5 atm?

A) 0.167

B) 0.333

C) 0.5

D) 0.667

31. A reaction has \( \Delta H = 50 \, \text{kJ/mol} \), \( \Delta S = 150 \, \text{J/mol} \cdot \text{K} \). At what temperature is it spontaneous?

A) Below 333 K

B) Above 333 K

C) Below 400 K

D) Above 400 K

32. In a BCC crystal with lattice parameter 3 Å, what is the distance between (100) planes?

A) 3 Å

B) 1.5 Å

C) 2.12 Å

D) 4.24 Å

33. The magnetic moment of \( [\text{Ni}(\text{CN})_4]^{2-} \) is:

A) 0 BM

B) 2.83 BM

C) 1.73 BM

D) 3.87 BM

34. Toluene with \( \text{Cl}_2 \) and \( \text{AlCl}_3 \) yields:

A) Chlorotoluene

B) Benzyl chloride

C) Dichlorotoluene

D) Chlorobenzene

35. In an electrochemical cell, the cathode is:

A) Where oxidation occurs

B) Where reduction occurs

C) Always negatively charged

D) Always positively charged

36. The pH of a 0.1 M solution of a weak base (pKb = 5) is:

A) 9

B) 11

C) 7

D) 3

37. The hybridization of carbon in ethene is:

A) sp\(^2\)

B) sp

C) sp\(^3\)

D) dsp\(^2\)

38. For \( 2\text{NO} + \text{O}_2 \to 2\text{NO}_2 \), if \( \Delta H = -114 \, \text{kJ/mol} \), what is \( \Delta H_f \) of \( \text{NO}_2 \)?

A) -57 kJ/mol

B) -114 kJ/mol

C) -28.5 kJ/mol

D) -228 kJ/mol

39. Which gas has the highest van der Waals constant ‘a’?

A) He

B) N\( _2 \)

C) NH\( _3 \)

D) H\( _2 \)

40. The oxidation state of Mn in \( \text{KMnO}_4 \) is:

A) +5

B) +7

C) +6

D) +4

41. The half-life of a second-order reaction with \( k = 0.05 \, \text{M}^{-1} \text{s}^{-1} \) and initial concentration 0.1 M is:

A) 200 s

B) 100 s

C) 50 s

D) 400 s

42. The IUPAC name of \( \text{CH}_3\text{COCH}_2\text{CH}_3 \) is:

A) Butan-2-one

B) Butanal

C) Propan-2-one

D) Butan-1-one

43. The indicator methyl orange changes color at pH:

A) 7

B) 4

C) 9

D) 11

44. The bond order of N\( _2^+ \) is:

A) 2.5

B) 3

C) 2

D) 1.5

45. The solubility product of \( \text{BaSO}_4 \) is \( 1.1 \times 10^{-10} \). What is its solubility in pure water?

A) \( 1.05 \times 10^{-5} \, \text{M} \)

B) \( 2.2 \times 10^{-10} \, \text{M} \)

C) \( 1.1 \times 10^{-10} \, \text{M} \)

D) \( 5.5 \times 10^{-11} \, \text{M} \)

46. The primary standard for acid-base titration is:

A) NaOH

B) Na\( _2 \)CO\( _3 \)

C) HCl

D) H\( _2 \)SO\( _4 \)

47. The structure of \( \text{SF}_4 \) is:

A) See-saw

B) Tetrahedral

C) Square planar

D) Trigonal pyramidal

48. The enthalpy of neutralization of a weak acid with a strong base is:

A) Less than -57.3 kJ/mol

B) -57.3 kJ/mol

C) More than -57.3 kJ/mol

D) Zero

49. The catalyst used in the contact process is:

A) V\( _2 \)O\( _5 \)

B) Fe

C) Ni

D) Pt

50. The number of stereoisomers of 2,3-butanediol is:

A) 2

B) 3

C) 4

D) 6

Biology (25 Questions)

51. In a population of 5000 in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, a gene has a mutation rate of \( 2 \times 10^{-6} \). How many new mutations are expected per generation?

A) 5

B) 10

C) 2.5

D) 20

52. The role of primase in DNA replication is:

A) Joins Okazaki fragments

B) Synthesizes RNA primers

C) Unwinds the DNA helix

D) Proofreads DNA

53. The antibody involved in allergic reactions is:

A) IgG

B) IgE

C) IgA

D) IgM

54. The resting membrane potential of a neuron is primarily due to:

A) K\(^+ \) leakage channels

B) Na\(^+ \) leakage channels

C) Cl\(^- \) channels

D) Ca\(^{2+}\) channels

55. The model organism for studying circadian rhythms is:

A) Escherichia coli

B) Drosophila melanogaster

C) Caenorhabditis elegans

D) Saccharomyces cerevisiae

56. Restriction enzyme BamHI cuts at:

A) GGATCC

B) GAATTC

C) CTTAAG

D) AAGCTT

57. Removal of a top predator from an ecosystem is likely to:

A) Increase primary productivity

B) Cause trophic cascade

C) Have no effect

D) Increase biodiversity

58. The repolarization phase of an action potential is driven by:

A) Influx of Na\(^+ \)

B) Influx of K\(^+ \)

C) Efflux of K\(^+ \)

D) Influx of Cl\(^- \)

59. In PCR, the denaturation step occurs at:

A) 95°C

B) 72°C

C) 55°C

D) 37°C

60. A monohybrid cross (Aa × Aa) produces a genotypic ratio of:

A) 1:2:1

B) 3:1

C) 9:3:3:1

D) 1:1

61. The primary pigment in photosynthesis is:

A) Carotene

B) Chlorophyll a

C) Chlorophyll b

D) Xanthophyll

62. The enzyme responsible for translation is:

A) RNA polymerase

B) Peptidyl transferase

C) DNA polymerase

D) Helicase

63. The trp operon is an example of:

A) Positive regulation

B) Negative regulation

C) Constitutive expression

D) Epigenetic modification

64. The primary function of the Golgi apparatus is:

A) Protein synthesis

B) Protein modification and packaging

C) Energy production

D) Cellular digestion

65. The Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium assumes no:

A) Mutation

B) Random mating

C) Large population

D) Equal allele frequencies

66. The hormone that stimulates insulin release is:

A) Glucagon

B) Incretin

C) Cortisol

D) Adrenaline

67. The process of cell division in somatic cells is:

A) Meiosis

B) Mitosis

C) Apoptosis

D) Necrosis

68. The sugar in RNA is:

A) Deoxyribose

B) Ribose

C) Glucose

D) Fructose

69. The site of lipid synthesis in a cell is:

A) Nucleus

B) Mitochondria

C) Endoplasmic reticulum

D) Ribosomes

70. The stage of meiosis where homologous chromosomes separate is:

A) Anaphase I

B) Anaphase II

C) Metaphase I

D) Prophase II

71. The primary product of the Calvin cycle is:

A) Glucose

B) G3P

C) ATP

D) NADPH

72. The primary function of platelets is:

A) Oxygen transport

B) Blood clotting

C) Immune response

D) Nutrient transport

73. The enzyme that seals nicks in DNA is:

A) Helicase

B) Ligase

C) Polymerase

D) Primase

74. The organelle responsible for detoxification is:

A) Mitochondria

B) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

C) Lysosome

D) Golgi apparatus

75. The genetic disorder caused by a mutation in the CFTR gene is:

A) Cystic fibrosis

B) Down syndrome

C) Turner syndrome

D) Klinefelter syndrome

Basics of Forensic Science (25 Questions)

76. The first step in processing a crime scene is:

A) Collecting evidence

B) Securing the perimeter

C) Photographing the scene

D) Interviewing suspects

77. The best method for developing latent fingerprints on paper is:

A) Cyanoacrylate fuming

B) Ninhydrin

C) Silver nitrate

D) Powder dusting

78. The best method to detect alcohol in a blood sample is:

A) Gas chromatography

B) UV-Vis spectroscopy

C) Thin-layer chromatography

D) Infrared spectroscopy

79. The theory that crime is learned through social interaction is:

A) Social control theory

B) Differential association theory

C) Strain theory

D) Labeling theory

80. Nuclear DNA is preferred for individual identification because:

A) It has a high copy number

B) It is maternally inherited

C) It is unique to each individual

D) It is less prone to degradation

81. The Daubert standard replaced:

A) Frye standard

B) Locard’s principle

C) Chain of custody

D) Miranda rights

82. The analysis of paint chips in forensics is done by:

A) Fourier-transform infrared spectroscopy

B) Gas chromatography

C) Mass spectrometry

D) X-ray diffraction

83. The luminol test detects:

A) Blood

B) Semen

C) Saliva

D) Urine

84. The marks on a fired bullet are primarily due to:

A) Bullet material

B) Barrel rifling

C) Firing pin

D) Gunpowder residue

85. The process to ensure digital evidence authenticity is:

A) Hashing

B) Compression

C) Encryption

D) Steganography

86. The most reliable method for identifying skeletal remains is:

A) Hair analysis

B) Dental records

C) Blood typing

D) Fingerprinting

87. The principle that every contact leaves a trace is:

A) Locard’s exchange principle

B) Frye standard

C) Daubert standard

D) Chain of custody

88. The best method for ink analysis in questioned documents is:

A) Gas chromatography

B) Thin-layer chromatography

C) Microscopy

D) DNA profiling

89. The bloodstain pattern indicating a medium-velocity impact is:

A) Swipe

B) Spatter

C) Pool

D) Transfer

90. The primary psychoactive compound in opium is:

A) Morphine

B) Codeine

C) Heroin

D) Thebaine

91. The Frye standard evaluates:

A) General acceptance of scientific evidence

B) Chain of custody

C) Witness credibility

D) Evidence collection

92. The technique for analyzing fiber evidence is:

A) Gas chromatography

B) Microscopy

C) Mass spectrometry

D) UV-Vis spectroscopy

93. The primary purpose of forensic odontology is:

A) Cause of death determination

B) Identification of remains

C) DNA analysis

D) Bloodstain analysis

94. The presumptive test for saliva is:

A) Amylase test

B) Kastle-Meyer test

C) Luminol test

D) Acid phosphatase test

95. The unique patterns in fingerprints are called:

A) Minutiae

B) Arches

C) Loops

D) Whorls

96. The forensic technique to analyze voice recordings is:

A) Spectrographic analysis

B) DNA profiling

C) Gas chromatography

D) Microscopy

97. The most reliable method for paternity testing is:

A) Fingerprinting

B) DNA profiling

C) Blood typing

D) Hair analysis

98. The primary source of error in forensic DNA analysis is:

A) Sample contamination

B) Equipment failure

C) Human error

D) All of the above

99. The forensic significance of glass evidence lies in:

A) Its color

B) Its refractive index

C) Its density

D) Its transparency

100. The technique to analyze bite marks is:

A) Comparison microscopy

B) Spectrophotometry

C) Gas chromatography

D) Electrophoresis