Forensic Science (30 Questions)
1. Forensic science primarily involves:
A) Developing software applications
B) Conducting economic audits
C) Applying scientific methods to criminal investigations
D) Studying political systems
2. The primary purpose of a forensic autopsy is to:
A) Treat medical conditions
B) Determine the cause and manner of death
C) Collect DNA for genetic research
D) Perform surgical interventions
3. DNA evidence is commonly used in forensic science to:
A) Identify individuals or link suspects to a crime scene
B) Determine the time of death
C) Analyze chemical compositions
D) Study environmental factors
4. Which technique is used to analyze fingerprints in forensic investigations?
A) Chromatography
B) Spectroscopy
C) Polymerase Chain Reaction
D) Dactyloscopy
5. The term 'ballistics' in forensic science refers to:
A) Study of blood spatter patterns
B) Analysis of firearms and ammunition
C) Examination of skeletal remains
D) Investigation of digital evidence
6. Which gas is commonly detected in toxicology to indicate poisoning?
A) Oxygen
B) Nitrogen
C) Carbon monoxide
D) Helium
7. The Locard’s Exchange Principle states that:
A) Every contact leaves a trace
B) DNA is always present at a crime scene
C) Fingerprints are unique to each individual
D) Blood evidence degrades over time
8. Forensic entomology involves the study of:
A) Plant evidence at crime scenes
B) Insects to estimate time of death
C) Soil samples for trace evidence
D) Digital footprints
9. The chain of custody in forensic science ensures:
A) Rapid processing of evidence
B) Destruction of contaminated evidence
C) Public access to evidence
D) Integrity and documentation of evidence
10. Which instrument is commonly used for analyzing trace evidence?
A) Stethoscope
B) Thermometer
C) Scanning Electron Microscope
D) Barometer
11. Forensic odontology is used to:
A) Analyze handwriting samples
B) Identify individuals through dental records
C) Examine soil samples
D) Study firearm markings
12. Blood spatter analysis helps determine:
A) The type and direction of impact
B) The time of death
C) The chemical composition of blood
D) The suspect’s identity
13. The term 'rigor mortis' refers to:
A) Blood pooling in the body
B) Decomposition of tissue
C) Stiffening of muscles after death
D) Loss of body temperature
14. Which forensic technique is used to identify unknown substances?
A) DNA profiling
B) Gas chromatography-mass spectrometry
C) Fingerprint dusting
D) Voice analysis
15. The Frye Standard in forensic science relates to:
A) DNA evidence collection
B) Fingerprint classification
C) Blood spatter interpretation
D) Admissibility of scientific evidence in court
16. Forensic anthropology primarily deals with:
A) Analyzing digital evidence
B) Studying insect activity
C) Examining skeletal remains
D) Investigating cybercrimes
17. The term 'livor mortis' refers to:
A) Muscle stiffening
B) Postmortem blood pooling
C) Tissue decomposition
D) Bone fractures
18. Forensic toxicology primarily focuses on:
A) Detecting poisons or drugs in the body
B) Analyzing soil samples
C) Studying insect activity
D) Examining digital evidence
19. The Daubert Standard is used to assess:
A) Fingerprint uniqueness
B) Blood spatter patterns
C) DNA degradation
D) Reliability of scientific evidence
20. A forensic serologist primarily analyzes:
A) Soil samples
B) Body fluids like blood and semen
C) Firearm markings
D) Digital footprints
21. The term 'algor mortis' refers to:
A) Muscle stiffening
B) Blood pooling
C) Cooling of the body after death
D) Tissue decomposition
22. Which of the following is a common method for DNA extraction?
A) Polymerase Chain Reaction
B) Gas Chromatography
C) Infrared Spectroscopy
D) Fingerprint Dusting
23. Forensic document examination involves:
A) Analyzing blood spatter
B) Studying skeletal remains
C) Examining digital evidence
D) Verifying handwriting or signatures
24. The term 'postmortem interval' refers to:
A) Time of injury
B) Time elapsed since death
C) Time of evidence collection
D) Time of trial
25. Which technique is used to detect gunshot residue?
A) DNA profiling
B) Blood spatter analysis
C) Scanning Electron Microscopy
D) Voice analysis
26. Forensic palynology involves the study of:
A) Pollen and spores
B) Blood samples
C) Firearm markings
D) Digital evidence
27. The term 'taphonomy' in forensic science refers to:
A) Analysis of fingerprints
B) Study of postmortem changes
C) Examination of digital evidence
D) Analysis of handwriting
28. Which of the following is used to analyze trace evidence like fibers?
A) DNA sequencing
B) Blood typing
C) Ballistics testing
D) Infrared spectroscopy
29. The term 'forensic pathology' refers to:
A) Analysis of digital evidence
B) Study of insect activity
C) Investigation of cause of death
D) Examination of soil samples
30. The Combined DNA Index System (CODIS) is used for:
A) Storing and comparing DNA profiles
B) Analyzing gunshot residue
C) Studying skeletal remains
D) Examining digital footprints
Criminology (35 Questions)
31. Criminology is the scientific study of:
A) Economic systems
B) Political structures
C) Causes and prevention of crime
D) Technological advancements
32. Which theory posits that crime occurs due to a lack of social bonds?
A) Strain Theory
B) Social Control Theory
C) Labeling Theory
D) Routine Activity Theory
33. Recidivism refers to:
A) Repeated criminal behavior
B) First-time offenses
C) Crime prevention programs
D) Victim support services
34. The primary role of police in India includes:
A) Drafting laws
B) Conducting trials
C) Managing prisons
D) Maintaining law and order
35. The Juvenile Justice Act in India addresses:
A) Corporate fraud
B) Juveniles in conflict with the law
C) Adult sentencing
D) Cybercrime laws
36. Which theory links crime to economic disparities?
A) Classical Theory
B) Social Learning Theory
C) Strain Theory
D) Routine Activity Theory
37. The father of modern criminology is:
A) Cesare Lombroso
B) Edwin Sutherland
C) Robert Merton
D) Travis Hirschi
38. White-collar crime is characterized by:
A) Violent acts
B) Financial misconduct
C) Juvenile offenses
D) Organized gang activities
39. The concept of 'anomie' was developed by:
A) Cesare Beccaria
B) Edwin Sutherland
C) Travis Hirschi
D) Émile Durkheim
40. A key law governing crimes in India is:
A) Right to Education Act
B) Consumer Protection Act
C) Indian Penal Code
D) Motor Vehicles Act
41. Restorative justice emphasizes:
A) Harsh punishment
B) Victim-offender reconciliation
C) Longer prison sentences
D) Ignoring victim needs
42. Deviance in criminology refers to:
A) Violation of social norms
B) Legal compliance
C) Economic equality
D) Political activism
43. A core component of the criminal justice system is:
A) Healthcare facilities
B) Educational institutions
C) Courts
D) Media organizations
44. Deterrence in criminology aims to:
A) Rehabilitate offenders
B) Prevent crime through fear of punishment
C) Promote vigilante justice
D) Ignore criminal behavior
45. The Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act in India addresses:
A) Cybercrime
B) Corporate fraud
C) Economic reforms
D) Child protection
46. Routine Activity Theory requires which elements for a crime to occur?
A) Motive, weapon, victim
B) Offender, police, opportunity
C) Motivated offender, suitable target, absence of guardian
D) Crime scene, evidence, witness
47. Penology is the study of:
A) Crime prevention
B) Punishment and rehabilitation
C) Victim psychology
D) Social inequality
48. A victimless crime is best exemplified by:
A) Drug possession
B) Robbery
C) Assault
D) Burglary
49. The Indian Penal Code was enacted in:
A) 1947
B) 1950
C) 1857
D) 1860
50. Differential Association Theory was proposed by:
A) Robert Merton
B) Edwin Sutherland
C) Cesare Lombroso
D) Travis Hirschi
51. Moral panic refers to:
A) Legal reforms
B) Economic crises
C) Public fear over a perceived threat
D) Political stability
52. Classical criminology emphasizes:
A) Free will and rational choice
B) Biological determinism
C) Social disorganization
D) Psychological trauma
53. Organized crime is characterized by:
A) Spontaneous offenses
B) Individual acts of violence
C) Unplanned theft
D) Structured criminal enterprises
54. The Code of Criminal Procedure in India was enacted in:
A) 1860
B) 1973
C) 1955
D) 1947
55. Which theory links crime to community characteristics?
A) Strain Theory
B) Labeling Theory
C) Social Disorganization Theory
D) Routine Activity Theory
56. Victimology studies:
A) Victims and their role in crime
B) Offender psychology
C) Police procedures
D) Courtroom dynamics
57. Mens rea refers to:
A) The physical act of a crime
B) The guilty mind or intent
C) The victim’s state of mind
D) The physical evidence
58. Community policing aims to:
A) Increase arrests
B) Reduce police presence
C) Isolate communities
D) Build trust with communities
59. Actus reus refers to:
A) The motive behind a crime
B) The victim’s role
C) The physical act of a crime
D) The punishment imposed
60. The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita is a replacement for:
A) Indian Penal Code
B) Right to Education Act
C) Consumer Protection Act
D) Motor Vehicles Act
61. Labeling Theory suggests that:
A) Crime is biologically determined
B) Social labels influence criminal behavior
C) Economic equality prevents crime
D) Punishment eliminates deviance
62. The term 'criminogenic' refers to:
A) Crime prevention strategies
B) Victim rehabilitation
C) Factors that contribute to crime
D) Legal reforms
63. The Broken Windows Theory suggests that:
A) Minor disorders can lead to serious crime
B) Economic growth reduces crime
C) Social bonds prevent deviance
D) Harsh punishments deter crime
64. The term 'retributive justice' focuses on:
A) Victim rehabilitation
B) Community policing
C) Crime prevention
D) Punishing the offender
65. The concept of 'social learning' in criminology emphasizes:
A) Biological factors
B) Economic conditions
C) Learning criminal behavior through observation
D) Legal reforms
Social Psychology (25 Questions)
66. Social perception is the process of:
A) Economic decision-making
B) Interpreting others’ behavior
C) Physical sensory processing
D) Political affiliations
67. The bystander effect refers to:
A) Increased helping in groups
B) Individual aggression
C) Reduced helping in a crowd
D) Enhanced group cohesion
68. Stereotyping involves:
A) Generalized beliefs about groups
B) Accurate individual assessments
C) Random social interactions
D) Legal judgments
69. Attitudes are often formed through:
A) Cognitive Dissonance Theory
B) Attribution Theory
C) Classical Conditioning
D) Social Learning Theory
70. Group behavior is influenced by:
A) Individual isolation
B) Social norms and roles
C) Economic policies
D) Biological instincts alone
71. Cognitive dissonance refers to:
A) Conflict between beliefs and behaviors
B) Group conformity
C) Social isolation
D) Economic decision-making
72. Conformity in social psychology involves:
A) Individual rebellion
B) Economic competition
C) Aligning with group norms
D) Political activism
73. The fundamental attribution error involves:
A) Underestimating personal traits
B) Overestimating personal traits in behavior
C) Ignoring social norms
D) Promoting group harmony
74. Obedience to authority was demonstrated in:
A) Asch’s conformity experiment
B) Zimbardo’s prison experiment
C) Bandura’s Bobo doll experiment
D) Milgram’s obedience experiment
75. Social loafing refers to:
A) Reduced effort in group tasks
B) Increased group productivity
C) Individual creativity
D) Political activism
76. Groupthink refers to:
A) Independent decision-making
B) Economic collaboration
C) Poor decisions due to group pressure
D) Cultural diversity
77. The halo effect refers to:
A) Negative stereotyping
B) Judging character based on one trait
C) Group conformity
D) Economic bias
78. The self-fulfilling prophecy involves:
A) Expectations shaping outcomes
B) Random social interactions
C) Economic predictions
D) Political reforms
79. A key factor in prejudice formation is:
A) Economic equality
B) Cultural assimilation
C) Political stability
D) Social categorization
80. The Asch experiment studied:
A) Obedience to authority
B) Aggression in groups
C) Conformity to group pressure
D) Individual creativity
81. Attribution in social psychology refers to:
A) Group dynamics
B) Explaining causes of behavior
C) Economic decision-making
D) Cultural integration
82. Deindividuation refers to:
A) Loss of personal identity in groups
B) Increased individual accountability
C) Economic collaboration
D) Political activism
83. Aggression as a learned behavior is explained by:
A) Cognitive Dissonance Theory
B) Attribution Theory
C) Frustration-Aggression Hypothesis
D) Social Learning Theory
84. Altruism refers to:
A) Selfish behavior
B) Group conflict
C) Selfless concern for others
D) Economic competition
85. The Stanford Prison Experiment highlighted the impact of:
A) Economic inequality
B) Social roles on behavior
C) Individual creativity
D) Political power
86. Social facilitation refers to:
A) Improved performance in the presence of others
B) Decreased group productivity
C) Economic collaboration
D) Cultural isolation
87. Prejudice can be reduced through:
A) Social isolation
B) Economic competition
C) Intergroup contact
D) Political conflict
88. Social identity refers to:
A) Individual achievements
B) Economic status
C) Political beliefs
D) Sense of belonging to a group
89. Diffusion of responsibility is associated with:
A) Individual accountability
B) Bystander effect
C) Economic collaboration
D) Political activism
90. Ingroup bias refers to:
A) Favoring one’s own group
B) Promoting diversity
C) Economic equality
D) Political neutrality
Social Work-Related Areas (10 Questions)
91. Social work primarily focuses on:
A) Corporate governance
B) Technological innovation
C) Improving individual and community well-being
D) Legal enforcement
92. Juvenile justice in social work emphasizes:
A) Rehabilitating young offenders
B) Economic planning
C) Urban development
D) Corporate social responsibility
93. Which Indian act protects child rights?
A) Right to Information Act
B) Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act
C) Companies Act
D) Motor Vehicles Act
94. Social welfare programs in India aim to:
A) Promote corporate expansion
B) Enhance military training
C) Develop technology
D) Alleviate poverty and promote education
95. Human rights in social work focus on:
A) Economic profitability
B) Political campaigns
C) Dignity and equality for all
D) Corporate governance
96. Casework in social work refers to:
A) Individualized client support
B) Group therapy
C) Economic planning
D) Legal enforcement
97. A core principle of social work is:
A) Economic competition
B) Empowerment of individuals
C) Political neutrality
D) Technological development
98. The National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (NREGA) aims to:
A) Promote urbanization
B) Support corporate growth
C) Enhance military training
D) Provide rural employment
99. Social workers address community issues through:
A) Legal prosecution
B) Economic forecasting
C) Community organization
D) Technological innovation
100. Advocacy in social work refers to:
A) Representing clients’ interests
B) Corporate management
C) Economic analysis
D) Political campaigning
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